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2006-08-28 08:52:30 · 2 answers · asked by goring 6 in Science & Mathematics Physics

magnetic force proportional to the product of the poles?

2006-08-29 01:59:41 · update #1

2 answers

Magnetic units are not expressed in terms of mass.

2006-08-28 09:18:49 · answer #1 · answered by yahoohoo 6 · 1 1

In SI base units, the strength of a magnetic field is measured in Amps per meter (A / m).

The unit of magnetic flux is called the Webber (Wb) which has SI base units of m^2 * kg * s^-2 * A^-1.

The unit of magnetic flux density is called the Tesla (T), with units of Wb/m^2.

No where in any of these 3 units is mass used as the sole unit of magnetism.
How did you come to the conclusion that mass is used?


EDIT:
The electro-magnetic (taking in to account both electric and magnetic forces) force acting on an object is given as:
F = q(E + v x B)
Where F, E, v and B are the vector quantities of the Force, Electric field, velocity, and Magnetic Field respectively and q is the charge on the object.

I am not sure what you mean by, "product of the poles".

2006-08-28 16:41:16 · answer #2 · answered by mrjeffy321 7 · 1 0

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