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considering the function f(x)=1/(x+1) and A.M.>G.M.
prove that
(X1+X2+X3+........+Xn)/(1+X1+X2+.....+Xn)<=X1/(X1+1)+X2/(X2+1)+...+Xn/(1+Xn)

where X1,X2,..,Xn is non-negative real number

2006-08-28 06:39:28 · 4 answers · asked by dhufiweioq j 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

What's A.M and G.M?

2006-08-28 07:09:22 · answer #1 · answered by Curious 2 · 0 0

F (u+c) *K (u) dork

2006-08-28 06:43:38 · answer #2 · answered by nobudE 7 · 0 3

No seriously....

(U)=(F)+(A)+(G)

2006-08-28 06:48:48 · answer #3 · answered by Answerman 3 · 0 2

W=A-N-K-E=R

2006-08-28 06:46:35 · answer #4 · answered by Edward B 4 · 0 3

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