In proving theorems, it is dangerous when one of the consequences is implied on a wrong fact. In your example,
the wrong step is (a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)==> a+b=b
This is because a=b hence a-b=0. You cannot divide both side by zero.
2006-08-27 05:57:11
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answer #1
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answered by lim_jz 2
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To prove 2= 1
Raise both of them to power of 0
ie 1^0 = 1
2^0 =1 (any number raised to power of 0 is 1)
therefore 2 = 1
2006-08-27 19:46:19
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answer #2
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answered by insignia 2
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If a=b then you can't divide by a-b in step 3 because that would be dividing by 0 which is a no-no.
Is it just me? Or do these same kinds of boring, dumbshit questions about dividing by 0 and what is 0/0 start to get a bit tedious after seeing them 2 or 3 times per day?
Doug
2006-08-27 05:58:26
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answer #3
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answered by doug_donaghue 7
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not only 2=1; say :
i. 9 x 0 = 0
ii. 71 x 0 = 0
but equation i = ii, and we get
9 x 0 = 71 x 0
9 = 71 x 0/0
according to your question, if 0/0 is equal to 1, then we get
9 = 71
2006-08-30 16:38:54
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answer #4
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answered by Douglaskoo 1
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Since a=b you are not allowed in the mathematical conventions of normal people to cross out a-b in step 4 of your 'proof' as it is 0. But if you are living in some hyperboloidal world in some other galaxy in our universe, then probably it might be true. Ask a bounty hunter or P. K. ****, they might be of immense help.
2006-08-27 13:40:04
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answer #5
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answered by A 4
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Your problem is after this step
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
If a=b, then a-b=0.
You cannot divide by 0 and the reason why (a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b) is true is because 0(a+b)=0(b) => 0=0, not because a+b = b, which is clearly nonsensical.
2006-08-27 06:01:17
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answer #6
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answered by just♪wondering 7
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you have divided by a-b on both sides in going from the 7th to the 8th step. since a=b, this is same as dividing by zero, which is not allowed. Proof is incorrect therefore
2006-08-27 23:56:32
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answer #7
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answered by curiosity_unbounded 2
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A very good approach :-) , however (a-b) = 0 if a=b, so you have
(a+b)x0 = b x0
hence
0 = 0
not 2 = 1
Thanks,
2006-08-27 23:35:53
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answer #8
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answered by PKG 1
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ok at (a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
so since a=b then a-b=0
here is what happens you come out with
0(a+b)=0(b)
so it ends up 0=0....your equation is now solved since you cannot go any further...so if a=0,1,2,3,4,5,etc then b is same so you always end up with solution of 0=0 which is true..hence your hypothesis is wrong..totally.
if a=b then no matter what you do you will have infinite valid answers because no matter what you do you end up with 0=0
2006-08-27 06:31:47
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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2b cannot be equal to b this is absurd so the assumption a=b is wrong
2006-08-27 06:30:16
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answer #10
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answered by ursikap u 1
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