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I have been working on this problem forever, and it's being such a pain! I have no idea why a problem this simple has become so mind-numbing. I am use to using the Property of 0 (Let F(x) become 0). I know that when using 0=1/2X, Anything I do with the 1/2 on the other side becomes a 0. Any explaination I would appreciate so I can put this problem to rest once and for all!

2006-08-26 18:41:01 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

Alright, I thought I was being more than direct, but I'm guessing my question is too vague. I have done about 98 problems that, by far, are a hell of alot more difficult than this dinky one. What I want to see though is how this specific problem is worked out without actually knowing Y=1 or X=2 as the answer. Yes, I am analyzing this one problem way too much, but it's bothering me for some reason. The original Problem:

F(X)=1/2X

As for damolbert, keep your simple-minded opinions to yourself. It just made your post that much more pointless as did your explaination. I know how to work a function given the domain and range "retard."

2006-08-26 20:02:05 · update #1

15 answers

I see how you could think this is hard... you're thinking too much... F(x) is really just suppose to be f(x). If the antiderivative of the given f(x) is indeed 1/2x then the derivative of that would in fact be y=1/2 so no matter what your x is y always equals 1/2. So yeah, I see where your confusion is. Just really on the fact that 1/2 of 2 is infact just one... as in the product of reciprical are infact to 1... 1/2 times 2/1 is 1... this is basic math... something you learn in the I believe 5th grade...

2006-08-26 19:16:14 · answer #1 · answered by venomfx 4 · 0 0

Nah Riceboy, everyone has to start somewhere. I am in a Mathematical Theories course to complete my Masters degree, and the simplest **** can still cause the biggest problems. So, do the world a favor and delete your account because you're just as worthless as damolbert. If you knew anything, detail is crucial in mathematics. I'm going on a hunch, but I'm sure as hell positive because the way Hope worded the question that they too are in a theories class. News Flash people, Math doesn't necessarily work in "levels" rather "situations." What one person may learn in one grade maybe entirely different than what another person may learn elsewhere in the same grade. *Gasp* get a clue! By the way, what joie said is true Hope. Sorry some immature people have to post useless **** and turn it into a useless post.

2006-08-27 04:19:48 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

When given F(x)=1/2X, Y = 1 and X=2, but how?

This is nonsense. unless x or y is given.

F(x) is a function defined as 1/2X

The function F maps X-values to Y-values.

given a value for X ,
you can calculate the value of F(x)
F(X) is also called the Y value.

For instance X=2 then
F(2) = 1/2*2 = 1,
so Y ( that is the value F(X) ) is 1.

When Y is given you can calculate the X
For instanced Y=4
Y=F(X)=1/2X
4=1/2X => X = 8.

ois this cl;ear?

2006-08-27 01:53:29 · answer #3 · answered by gjmb1960 7 · 0 0

It means that when X=2, Y=1 where Y=F(x)=1/2*X.

If you substitute X=2 into F(x), you get F(2) = 1/2*2 which = 1 which = Y. Therefore, to make the left side of the equation equal the right side, X=2 and Y=1.

2006-08-27 01:49:11 · answer #4 · answered by Sindri 2 · 0 0

you, madam, are a retard. guess what the "property of zero" is used for? that's right, to find the ZERO's of functions, that is, when x = 0. if you remember from 8th grade pre-algebra f(x)=y, and f(x) here is being defined as (1/2)x, therefore (1/2)x = y. if you're given x as 2, and plug it in you have (1/2)2=y. now, I would stop right here with an average person(and let me tell you, the average person is pretty stupid), but you have proven yourself worthless, so I must multiply this for you. 1*2=2, and 2/2=1, so 1=y, now, I know this notation can be very mindboggling, however, if you "turn it around" you get... y=1... aha! here lies the much coveted answer you were looking for all this time. now, you must proceed to hide in a hole for the remainder of your life.

2006-08-27 02:18:50 · answer #5 · answered by damolbert 1 · 1 0

Why are you used to use "Property of Zero"???... You are not supposed to suppose F(x)=0.... ok???

Now think about what is Y.... Y = F(x) right!!

now you are given the function
F(x)=1/2X
F(2)=(1/2)(2)
F(2)=1
=Y

so theres no problem in this problem......

Only thing I can say in this regard is that please do not try to solve everything all alone unless you dont have any means to verify your method, as an instructor or a fellow student, or you are going to stick to the methods you use on your own, you just dont have any means to authenticate your method.

I figured this thing because you assumed F(x)=0 for no good reason.

Good Luck.

2006-08-27 01:53:40 · answer #6 · answered by Awais 1 · 0 0

I think you are confusing yourself with your notation. You have the equation:

F(x) = 1/2X

Then when you say Y=1, you've seeminly introduced a new variable, since it is not referenced in the original equation. You probably mean:

Y = F(x) = 1/2X

which is normally written without the F() notation, as

Y = 1/2X.

Now the "property of 0" is clearly not applicable, as 0=1/2X implies Y=0, yet your condition is Y=1.

2006-08-27 01:51:32 · answer #7 · answered by Jim L 5 · 0 0

I can't believe I'm taking time to even address this, but WOW damolbert, you suck at life. Judging from your question asked concerning The best universities for a pre-med major, I hope to god you aren't really planning on becoming a doctor since your bedside manner could use alot of work. I cringe at the thought of being your patient *shiver,* But that'll never happen seeing as how you suck at life. Take it from me, I _AM_ a medical student!

Anyhow, Hope, the first time I read your question I thought you might have meant how it's worked out because you asked how you could get those answers. I just wasn't sure, so thanks for clearing it up. It's basically worked out as anyone of the answers that have been posted, except exclude the Y=1 or the X=2, reverse it, and voila! You have the process figured out. You are looking way into it, but I can understand why it's bothering you. It's even bothering me now! :D

2006-08-27 03:14:47 · answer #8 · answered by joie 6 · 0 1

IFit is 1/(2x)? Obviously, F(x)=1/2X, Y = 1 and X=2 will be false. Since:

F(x)=y

1=1/(2x)

1=1/(2)(2)

1=1/4 FALSE

However, should it be (1/2)x then it is true whether F(x)=0

0=(1/2)(x)

0=(1/2)(0)

0=0 TRUE.

Given F(x)=1/2X, Y = 1 and X=2 remains true, since

F(2)= (1/2)(2)

1=1 TRUE

SO Y=1 and X=2

2006-08-27 01:51:53 · answer #9 · answered by Neo_Apocalypse 3 · 0 0

Your question is not exactly clear. You give an equation for F(x), then refer to values of x and y, with no clear indication of what y means, Normally, in plotting a function, the x-axis is the independent variable (x) and the function value is the y axis. If this is what you mean by y, then y=F(x). This means y = (1/2)x. Then if x=2, y=1.

2006-08-27 01:50:02 · answer #10 · answered by gp4rts 7 · 0 0

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