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Do you think that Richard II really was so pure or just a spoiled rich brat according to Shakespeare's representation of this king? I must add that I can't stop listening to "Straight to Hell" by the Clash early this morning. What in the hell are they talking about I mean, mama san????!! I ain't coca cola, it's rice

Go straight to hell, boys, saith the Clash.

Am I acting crazy or really going there this morning?

2006-08-26 18:25:44 · 2 answers · asked by ? 4 in Arts & Humanities Theater & Acting

It would be better if I got some sleep but, as the Stones sing, really Mick: "YOu can't alWays GET WHAT YOU WANT'' CAPS for exclamation and added volume.

2006-08-26 18:28:21 · update #1

2 answers

Richard II was careless in very many ways, and that's what caused his downfall. Henry VI may have had some mental problems because his maternal Grandfather-Charles VI-did, indeed, experience bouts of insanity.

For Henry VI, I've heard the experts say he had a possible range of ailments from slight mental retardation, to schizophrenia; so, in his case, maybe he was too...unwordly...

Vandevere

2006-08-26 18:32:10 · answer #1 · answered by Ven D 3 · 1 0

No just too naive.

2006-08-27 01:33:34 · answer #2 · answered by Isolde 7 · 1 0

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