It happen like this: AN OWNER OF THE LAND WANTS TO GET HIS LAND NOW FROM THE PERSON WHO CULTIVATED IT FOR SEVERAL YEARS, PROVIDING THAT THE LAND HAS SOME ROOT CROPS AND MORE, what should the owner do in order for him to get the land, ..... thanks ......
2006-08-26 17:32:23 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Coragryph is right. The other possible issue is adverse possession. The term of years you have to use the land openly and adversely to the true owner is different in each state. After you possess adversely for the required time limit, you can petition the county to change ownership to your name, or wait until the prior owner tries to eject you and use adverse possession as your claim to ownership.
2006-08-26 17:54:02 · answer #1 · answered by Catspaw 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your question is not very clear.
The land is owned by one person (Owner) but someone else is on the land cultivating it (Farmer)? Is that correct?
Does Farmer have a lease? Or rent? If so, then the lease or rental agreement would cover the terms of the owner reclaiming it.
If not, and Farmer is there without permission, then Owner can bring legal action in the local county court. The common name of the civil action to file is "Ejectment", which is like eviction.
{EDIT}
Catspaw is correct, as usual. I didn't bring up Adverse Possession because it would be raised (if at all) as a defense during the Ejectment action, and if not raised then not relevant.
2006-08-27 00:36:39 · answer #2 · answered by coragryph 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
you stated the land has some root crops and more. What does more mean? And why has the owner not had control of the property for several years? The answer to these questions will determine what action can be taken.
2006-08-27 00:53:25 · answer #3 · answered by Sarah H 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if the land is theirs, why can't they just "take it"?
2006-08-27 00:36:26 · answer #4 · answered by Dwight D J 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do they have agreement?
2006-08-27 00:49:32 · answer #5 · answered by radageo 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋