2006-08-26 10:48:15 · 6 answers · asked by Speshul Ed 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
No, and neither can anyone else, so far.
This is known as the Twin Prime Conjecture and it dates back to Euclid.
2006-08-26 10:55:45 · answer #1 · answered by rt11guru 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, i can disprove it. the answer states disprove that p + 2 is prime. we do this because if we can find any number where p + 2 is not prime then it is automatically disproven
so if mod [ (p + 2)/ m (n where n > 1 or < p +2)] = 0 then the number is not prime. ergo, plugging in P = 7
mod (7 + 2)/m (1 < n < p + 2) where we let n range between greater than 1 and less than nine, we find that the answer for n = 3 is mod (equation) = zero. not prime.
2006-08-26 18:02:39 · answer #2 · answered by promethius9594 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
p = 13, p+2 = 15 <> prime
2006-08-26 17:53:48 · answer #3 · answered by ceprn 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yup, as someone already said, it's called Euclid's Twin Prime Conjecture. A proof was submitted in 2004, but it turned out to have a serious error and was later retracted. It has not yet been proven.
2006-08-26 18:16:51 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
23(prime)+2=25 which is not a prime number,
therefore, the assumption is false.
2006-08-26 17:58:00 · answer #5 · answered by cab veteran 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, of course I can prove it
2006-08-26 17:53:20 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋