My world history class is curious as to why the vikings were referred to as such. We noted that certain countries, such as France and Austria, obtained those names due to the tribes that occupied them around the time of the Roman Empire(the Franks and Osters), and wondered if a similar connection could be made concerning the Vikings.
2006-08-26 04:08:38 · 3 answers · asked by Melanie L 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
The word viking was introduced to the English language with romantic connotations in the 18th century. However, etymologists assign the earliest use of the word to Anglo-Frankish writers, who referred to "víkingr" as one who set about to raid and pillage. [[2]] In the current Scandinavian languages the term viking is applied to the people who went away on viking expeditions, be it for raiding or trading. In English it has become common to use it to refer to the Viking Age Scandinavians in general. The pre-Christian Scandinavian population is also referred to as Norse.
Courtesy of wikipedia.org
2006-08-26 04:13:12 · answer #1 · answered by fivel30213 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Going back a bit more, one theory is that the root verb was
"vik- ", essentially meaning to go out on an adventure, with robbery and pillage thrown in.
2006-08-26 07:15:50 · answer #2 · answered by dollhaus 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
i dont understand
2006-08-26 04:10:15 · answer #3 · answered by qing_66 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋