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2006-08-25 18:35:32 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Geography

10 answers

The "West Indies" originates from Christopher Columbus' idea that he had landed in the Indies (then meaning all of south and east Asia) when he had actually reached the Americas.The West Indies, consist of the Antilles, divided into the larger Greater Antilles which bound the sea on the north and the Lesser Antilles on the east, and the Bahamas which are northeast of the sea. Bermuda lies much further to the north in the Atlantic Ocean and is sometimes included in the West Indies. Geopolitically, the West Indies are organized into 28 territories including sovereign states, overseas departments, and dependencies.

2006-08-26 11:11:00 · answer #1 · answered by ♥ lani s 7 · 3 0

For years there was overland trade with lands in Asia, especially India with the general name for all inhabitants being called indians. When the Muslims tolk over the Middle East it put a crimp in the spice trade and other products. So Portugese Vasco da Gama sailed around the Cape of Good Hope in the 1400's and was trading in the isles of present day Malaysia and Indonesia. He called the area the East Indies (east of India). Portugal had a powerful navy and controlled this route for years much to the dismay of neighbor Spain and the rest of Europe. Then along comes Columbus who insisted that there were was a route to the west to these Indies and not controlled by Portugal. He did not know that there were two whole continents in the way (North & South America) wioth islands in between. When he landed on San salvador/Watlings Island, he did not know what they were and since the "uncivilized people didn't speak Portugese, which had been expected, he simply claimed the lands for the rulers of Spain and declared them as the West Indies (west of Spain). hope this helps.

2006-08-25 19:11:12 · answer #2 · answered by bigreddwg 2 · 1 1

First Columbus discovered India and then he reached a place with almost same climatic and physiographic conditions. he mistakenly thought that it is india. He did'nt knew that he had discovered a new piece of land .He named the land as West India and renamed India by East India . After some years Both the lands were renamed as west Indies and India respectively.

2006-08-25 22:28:23 · answer #3 · answered by Ish 2 · 0 2

Recall that Columbus was trying to get to India on his voyage, and that he sailed west. When it turned out that the land he found was not India, someone called what he found the west Indies (to distinguish them from the Indies that Columbus was seeking) and the name has stuck. Which is a source, to this day, of unending confusion: is an Indian a native of the subcontinent, or one of the early inhabitants of North America?

2006-08-25 19:52:15 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

First Columbus discovered India and then he reached a place with almost same climatic and physiographic conditions. he mistakenly thought that it is india. He did'nt knew that he had discovered a new piece of land .He named the land as West India and renamed India by East India . After some years Both the lands were renamed as west Indies and India respectively.

2006-08-25 19:01:55 · answer #5 · answered by Sayan Das Karmakar 2 · 1 1

Collumbus thought the place he had reached was India. But it was later found out that it wasn't India. Since it was in the west it was called west india. This later became west indies.

2006-08-25 18:51:51 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Columbus saw Indians on his long boat trip West.

2006-08-25 18:38:29 · answer #7 · answered by SweetNurse 4 · 1 0

cos Columbus had reached india

2014-11-13 02:11:47 · answer #8 · answered by farwa 1 · 0 0

'Cos Columbus thought he'd reached India when he landed there.

2006-08-25 18:40:22 · answer #9 · answered by zee_prime 6 · 1 0

This is a challenging question, and one that confused me for many years.

2016-08-14 04:11:46 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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