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2006-08-25 00:27:32 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science Economics

5 answers

Due to decreasing marginal benefits of both labor and capital, industries typically develop through technological advancement/breakthrough.

Many times, development is in fits & starts....the ability to harness fossil fuels directly led to the industrial revolution which kicked off exponential growth. The "dot.com boom" is another example.

Development can also be a slower, gradual process, i.e. the automotive industry typically develops new add-ons as time goes by.....however, at very basic level, the function/form of a car has not significantly changed since inception.

2006-08-25 06:19:46 · answer #1 · answered by intelbarn 3 · 0 0

The question is far too broad to give any kind of real answer. The question could be as broad as encompassing the whole Industrial Revolution of the 19th century to as specific as the development and growth of a single company.

You're going to need to be more specific.

2006-08-25 08:41:35 · answer #2 · answered by Ryan D 4 · 0 0

Well, according the Karl Marx industries have developed from capatilism, capatalist governments. According to Socrates they have developed from the social consciousness of most people wanting industry to occur and grow.

2006-08-25 07:37:02 · answer #3 · answered by Foxhound 2 · 0 1

In the beginning it was cheaper to buy in the market than to organize everything inside a company. Then, the investments and the transactions costs made it easier to have everything under one roof and the organization changed to big corporations. Later, with declining transaction costs it became once again cheaper to buy in the market (the BS you hear everyday about outsourcing, globalization, etc is all about this) and big corporations start disintegrating as they used to be (we have the case of GM... wait and see)

2006-08-25 09:18:31 · answer #4 · answered by virgilio costa 3 · 0 0

exploitation.

2006-08-25 07:33:21 · answer #5 · answered by mg 2 · 0 1

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