if a^(n)-b^(n)
=(a-b)^(n)+nk(a-b)
here whenever "a"is odd and "b" is a natural number and "n"is a prime or its factors are the same prime(here for "n" the multiples of 5 like 25,125 etc are not included but 5 is included) then "k" will always be natural number.
2006-08-25 00:11:56 · 6 answers · asked by rajesh bhowmick 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
it is true
great job!!
2006-08-25 00:16:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yep
2006-08-25 08:24:44 · answer #2 · answered by arthurbc1 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i am not sure
but i think u can solve it by mathematical induction
the more i think of it
i am surer
it can be solved my mathematical induction
2006-08-25 10:52:08 · answer #3 · answered by ash007 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yup
2006-08-25 08:32:52 · answer #4 · answered by gal 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yup, it sure is.
Doug
2006-08-25 07:26:58 · answer #5 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
true
2006-08-25 07:37:37 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋