adams last name was science
eves last name was math
adam science
eve math
2006-08-24 11:19:54
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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You will find many different solutions to that, and you might be surpised, that the real reason for it being there, might be believed or disbelieved when its the truth. Or mislead with what it is.
To go back time would be hard to do and ask why, because, not here to explain it, yet there is a reason there is adam and eve written there.
Some people explained it well to me. I might be right, I might be wrong, yet I feel good about it, when you look at the clues about what the writer was trying to write, the writer was explaining what the circle of life is.
Adam and Eve where just names picked, because someone was there, before they were, to explain it.
Remember there are several forms of the concept of God the one that loves, or as dictators do, or to steal and say all things belong to them as the supreme being.
God is only a concept we learn, remember God come from a standard and the concept must be practical, because all blessings come from a practical application, God is not a person, and not just a man, because one person can't be everywhere at the same time and we don't know things until we learn them, God came from two words, Got and Did, people make it happen or it does not exist, we go to school to learn something, we go to church to learn to be better people and coexist with others, or there is no concept of God.
2006-08-24 07:41:13
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answer #2
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answered by fujitsu124 1
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No they did not...surnames did not come into play until the early years of the Middle Ages, most people in Europe lived in small farming villages. Everyone knew his neighbors, and there was little need for last names. But as the population expanded and the towns grew, a need arose to find ways to differentiate between two people who shared the same first name.
Because the British were among the first Europeans to settle in North America, many modern American surnames can be traced back to medieval England, Scotland, Ireland, and Wales. Common adjectives used as bynames often referred to size - such as Little, Short, or Long—or to hair color or complexion—such as White, Black, or Red (which evolved into Reed). Sometimes, an adjective was combined with a noun to form a byname, like Longfellow or Blackbeard. Names such as Stern and Stout (meaning stout-hearted, not fat) described temperament, while Drinkwater implied someone with a powerful thirst. John Peacock must have been rather vain! A name might also refer to social status, such as Squire, Knight, or Bachelor. And Palmer described a pilgrim who had returned from the Holy Land. (It was traditional for such pilgrims to bring back a palm as a sort of souvenir.)
2006-08-24 07:06:54
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answer #3
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answered by Natural_Woman 4
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Of course not. They didn't exist and even if they did it would be pointless to give them surnames if they were the only two people on earth. In fact it wasn't really that important to give them first names either, at least until they had kids. If Adam said "Hey, you" or something Eve would obviously have known who he was talking to. Also, since they weren't married (I doubt they could've found a priest and two witnesses) they probably would've chosen against surnames to keep the whole 'living in sin' thing in the background. Unless they were to have the same surname, by some random chance.
2006-08-25 23:46:11
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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The story is fiction. It's a metaphor for a stage during
which humans tranformed from hunter/gatherer to
an agricultural society.
Your question is like asking if Moby Dick was a male or female whale. Since the story is fiction in the first place and the author never bothered to define it, the answer doesn't exist.
Furthermore you're wasting your time reading that
crap. Read about real science and ask intelligent questions.
2006-08-24 08:35:18
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answer #5
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answered by albert 5
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Yes, I beleive Adam's last name was ANT and Eve was actually her last name, the first being Christmas.
2006-08-24 07:00:58
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answer #6
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answered by mick D 1
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They didnt need last names. Last names originated about 1000 years ago i think.
2006-08-24 07:39:58
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answer #7
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answered by ? 2
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Smith
2006-08-24 07:00:21
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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This is one of the stupidiest...................nevermind I'm sure you hear it all the time.
For the sake of arugment. They did not have last names because no one needed them back then. A better question would be...........when were last names first used?
Now go away and try not to hurt yourself.
2006-08-24 07:04:38
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answer #9
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answered by hisgirl 5
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No. For a long time, people were known by the towns they lived in (Jesus of Nazareth), or by some distinguished ancestor (blahblah of the tribe of Levi).
2006-08-24 07:34:53
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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