A friend ask me this and I have no clue . But I'm hopeing some of you wonderful people do know the answer.
2006-08-24 06:09:01 · 7 answers · asked by purple2sandy 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Earth Sciences & Geology
Original definition is 160 sq rods. A 4 x 40 rod lot was a normal space for a homestead at the time. The feet and yard conversion came later.
From; http://www.sizes.com/units/acre.htm
The acre was originally the amount of land that could be plowed in a single day with oxen , or actually, what could be done by midday, since refueling took all afternoon (the oxen had to be put out to pasture). Similar units of land area are found wherever animals are used for plowing; the German Morgen and Roman jugerum had much the same meaning.
2006-08-24 06:22:23 · answer #1 · answered by Richard B 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Statutory values for the acre were enacted in England by a number of monarchs. Victoria did so last in the British "Weights and Measures Act" of 1878--defining it as containing 4,840 square yards.
2006-08-24 13:13:29 · answer #2 · answered by tbom_01 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because it's a chain (22 yards) wide and a furlong (10 chains) long. It's also the area that could be ploughed by an ox drawn plough in a morning - allegedly.
2006-08-24 13:17:04 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because the imperial system is based on tradition and not on ease of calculation.
The metric system on the other hand aims to make everything countable in powers of ten.
2006-08-24 13:13:28 · answer #4 · answered by nitro2k01 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because that would make (more) sense than the English System allows and it might (heaven forbid) become part of the Metric System.
2006-08-24 16:38:32 · answer #5 · answered by Amphibolite 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because an acre is 43,560 sf.
2006-08-24 13:14:14 · answer #6 · answered by skyeblue 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because people decided to be assholes when they devised the unit of measurement known as the acre.
2006-08-24 13:12:27 · answer #7 · answered by shadowshark11 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋