2006-08-24 04:39:15 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Infinite G.P.
first term, a = 1/2
common ratio, r = 1/2
sum = a/(1 - r) = {1/2} / {1- (1/2) } = 1
2006-08-24 05:27:04 · answer #1 · answered by qwert 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
it is 1.
2006-08-24 05:26:56 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You have a geometic series with a1 = 1/2, and r = 1/2.
The sum of a geometic series is
a1 * (1 - r^n) / (1 - r)
Here n = Infinity, so r^n = 0. You have
the the SUM = 1/2 * (1 / (1/2)) = 1.
2006-08-24 05:38:15 · answer #3 · answered by Stanyan 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
do you mean this:
.50000 1/2
.25000 1/4
.12500 1/8
.06250 1/16
+ .03125 +1/32
---------------------------------------------
.96875 31/32 or 31 divdied by 32= .96875
or this:
if you keep adding half of the previous fraction the answer will never be "0" because half is still an "amount or part of something" but the amount added will be so small that it will basically have no effect on the whole, half can be added indefinately, thats how they come up with half- life when talking radiation. radiation will always be at a nuclear explosion site, but every so many years it looses half of its power. and over time the part will be halved to so small of a part that it will have no major effect.
2006-08-24 04:50:58 · answer #4 · answered by Han_dang 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Graphically, if you were to draw a number line, the point to the immediate left of one would be the value you seek. 1 - 1/infinity.
2006-08-24 07:39:10 · answer #5 · answered by Mr. E 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if you keep adding to infinity, I believe it will end up equaling 1.
The limit of 1 / (2^n) as n approaches infinity equals 1.
2006-08-24 04:45:01 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
this is common series stuff... do your own homework
1/(2^n) is the series find the limit as n goes to infinity. That's all I'm telling ya.
This is why maths and sciences are so far behind in America.
2006-08-24 04:41:58 · answer #7 · answered by AresIV 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
pow(2,n) = 2 to the power n
If you are referring only to 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 + 1/32 , it is equal to 31\32 . If it continues to infinite , the it is equal to 1 .
1\(pow(2,1))+1\(pow(2,2))+...+1\(pow(2,n)) = x = 2*x - x =
(1\(pow(2,0))+1\(pow(2,1))+...+1\(pow(2,(n-1))))-(1\(pow(2,1))+1\(pow(2,2))+...+1\(pow(2,n)))= 1-1pow(2,n)=(pow(2,n)-1)\(pow(2,n)) .It won't show the hole answer , damm it !
It's 1 .
2006-08-24 04:42:03 · answer #8 · answered by d13 666 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Try asking your teacher/tutor/parental unit/whatever to help you understand the question.
You won't learn anything by having other people do your homework.
2006-08-24 06:13:43 · answer #9 · answered by Here's the Answer 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
INFINITY!! WOO WOO
2006-08-25 04:00:31 · answer #10 · answered by Shawti 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋