They can and do and have. You just have to meet the requirements of a contract ("When is a contract not a contract? When there's no consideration.") and of proof. Make sure you have the e-mail printed out with full headers, and proof (if you can) that the IP address is that of the sender. And any supporting information.
An e-mail is no less of a letter than one mailed with a stamp. It's just that it's more easily forged, and the "signature" is, like the signature of a telex, electronic.
Here's just one of many articles discussing the issue and pointing out how e-mails can form binding contracts, satisfying the "statute of frauds" that requires certain contracts to be in writing:
http://www.bizjournals.com/boston/stories/2002/04/15/focus2.html
The confidence with which non-lawyers answer important questions wrongly about points of law on Yahoo! Answers never ceases to amaze me.
2006-08-24 02:11:53
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes.
E-mails are considered written agreements. Of course, the contents of the email must satisfy the requirements for a contract, but they may be valid contracts.
If you have a specific legal question based on your emails, contact a local attorney to help you more.
2006-08-24 03:14:48
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answer #2
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answered by blah 4
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Even oral agreements are binding contracts. But if there is a dispute, it is more difficult to prove in court.
Emails can be altered, and thus will not hold up in court as well as written contracts signed by both parties and notarized.
2006-08-24 01:51:50
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Go to www.allbusinesses.com and it tells you explicitly that an email can be considered a binding contract if both parties agree on the heirinsaid propposals within the contract to make it binding in a court of law. But there are a few loopholes to this. READ it.
2006-08-24 01:51:16
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answer #4
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answered by TX girl 2
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You sound like a regulation pupil fishing for a homework hypo answer. LOL. which you should to talk to a Philadephia legal professional, who could understand greater approximately it. they could look at your case and supply you elementary advice to whether you have a settlement decrease than Pennsylvania regulation. they shouldn't charge you for the preliminary consultation. --------------------------------------... in fact, a settlement is an supply and a valid popularity. looks elementary. a settlement could be oral, e mail, scribbled on a scrap of a serviette, etc.... yet...there are a number of circumstances which could substitute whether an popularity is valid. (case in point, if the guy making the supply effectively rescinds it earlier you settle for it, there is possibly no settlement.) next, decide whether the settlement is enforceable. (case in point, particularly circumstances, the regulation demands contracts to be written, and could require different formalities. If those standards are no longer met, the settlement won't have the capacity to be enforced.) What precisely does the settlement require, and did the different social gathering breach those words? that's available that the theatre thinks it totally complied with what you asked it to do. Is there a legal excuse for the different social gathering's non-overall performance (case in point, financial disaster)? ultimately, IF the settlement is enforceable, you may desire to evaluate what remedies are available.
2016-12-11 14:26:39
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answer #5
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answered by spadafora 4
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NO! anybody can write an email. a contract must be signed by both parties and dated. if the email is printed out and then at the bottom both parties in question who agree to terms then sign it and date it yes. but not just an email.
2006-08-24 02:07:03
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answer #6
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answered by ABC 3
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I don't think it will hold up as a contract but I would think if you could prove that the person actually sent it and wrote then then it would be very good proof for you.
2006-08-24 01:48:04
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answer #7
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answered by 51ain'tbad 3
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Yes. If it fulfills the requirements of a contract. Offer, Acceptance, and . . . I can't remember the 3rd part!
2006-08-24 01:51:10
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answer #8
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answered by Michael B 5
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Yes, if the company does ANY type of business transaction over the internet.
2006-08-24 01:50:21
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous 7
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yes. Between two persons, are writing back and forth. One of them is copying your writing. then you agree to something. He has your word in writing. He has a copy of your agreement.
2006-08-24 01:51:17
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answer #10
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answered by alfonso 5
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