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7 answers

I think in most states yes it is. Unless it's a court ordered wiretap, recorded conversations without the consent of both parties is inadmissible in court.

2006-08-24 00:54:21 · answer #1 · answered by darthclown 4 · 0 0

In most states and under federal law, you must have permission of all parties to a conversation to record it. Some states just make its use for any purpose illegal, but most ban the use of the recording for any purpose.

If you have a beeper that plays while recording, that may be enough notice to others on the phone line that the conversation is being recorded, so if the party continues to talk, s/he is giving implicit consent.

2006-08-24 01:10:40 · answer #2 · answered by thylawyer 7 · 0 0

YES!

The reason this was passed into law is to prevent entrapment in a legal sense. Any info obtained in illegal recordings cannot be introduced into a court of law.
If it were to be used in an illegal manner to "blackmail" or "slander", the one who does the recording "can be prosecuted for that offense alone".

Recording can be justified with a warrant issued by a judge.

The chance of you or I getting that is slim to none.

2006-08-24 01:02:37 · answer #3 · answered by ed 7 · 0 0

Varies from state to state. In Missouri only one person involved in the conversation has to know the conversation is being recorded for it to be legal.

2006-08-24 01:33:09 · answer #4 · answered by mark g 6 · 1 0

yes it is against the law to do that. If something like that needs to be done contact the law and see if they can tap your phone. That is the best thing to do. They should be able to help you

2006-08-24 00:54:21 · answer #5 · answered by Mickey S 4 · 0 0

Yes. You need his/her permission at the start of the conversation or you need a warrant.

2006-08-24 00:53:01 · answer #6 · answered by Jill&Justin 5 · 0 0

its not against the law, but to publish it or use it anywhere that is not private is illegal unless the person is forewarned

2006-08-24 00:52:33 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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