What's the origin of the axiom that states that something must be disprovable in order to be provable?

Answer 1

This is the mathematics rule of counterexample...it basically comes from the fact that Maths people are all nuts, they come up with ridiculous statements that don't make sense, and it takes 100 years for people to prove it, but alot less time to disprove them...

Ironically, an Axiom, In epistemology, is a self-evident proposition is one that is known to be true by understanding its meaning without proof.

So to answer your question...axioms are not disprovable, hyptheses are..but that is me splitting hairs, I apologise

This is aa good link to get your head round the math side of things, if you can be bothered....It's heavy going!

Answer 2

This comes from mathematics. Geometry - strangely enough - uses proofs to form theorems and corollaries. The root basis of this process is the statement, which is an assertion that can be true or false, but must be determinable as one or the other. It's not so much as being disprovable, but knowable, to be provable. You could begin however by disproving a negative...