If one baseball player is batting 1-4 and another is also batting 1-4. Thats .200. So how come the probability of one of them getting a hit is .250 (2/8).
2006-08-23 14:03:25 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Slight error on your part. If a player gets one hit in four at-bats, then his average is .250 (1/4) If two players each get a hit while batting four times, then their averages are still .250 (2/8 = 1/4).
You don't add the hits to the at-bats, otherwise you do get .200 (1/(1+4))
2006-08-23 14:08:54 · answer #1 · answered by eriurana 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
OK...
Player 1, let's call him ARod, gets 1 hit every 4 at bats.
1/4 = .250
Player 2, let's call him Jason also bats .250.
The probability of one of them getting a hit (in a single at bat apiece) is .250 + .250 - (.250 * .250). You have to subtract out the probability that they both get a hit, or else you would be counting it twice.
So, that leaves the probability of either getting a hit at .4375.
Not bad for $46 million a year.
2006-08-23 21:22:22 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
idk
2006-08-23 21:08:42 · answer #3 · answered by mexicangurl619 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋