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I’m not just trying to get you guys to do my home work or any thing I just don't know why I keep getting the answer wrong...I mean I already corrected my math and I know that the answer is 1/36 but I think I am doing the steps wrong.


Ok so the question is....
A single die is rolled twice. what is the probability of getting a 5 and a 2?

So can you show me step by step how to do it???
PLEASE?

2006-08-22 13:02:43 · 8 answers · asked by girlperson 2 in Education & Reference Homework Help

8 answers

Since a die has 6 faces, you have one chance in 6 of a single roll being a 5. Likewise, you have once chance in 6 that the second roll will be a 2.

So, 1 chance in 6, or 1/6, times 1/6 again for the second roll, gives a product of 1/36 (since 6 times 6 = 36)

Now, this assumes you mean a 5 and a 2 in that order. If you mean the first roll can be either a 5 or a 2, and the second roll must be the other number, that changes the problem. Since the odds on the first roll are now 2 out of 6, rather than 1 out of 6, your chances improve. The answer there is 1/18. That is, 2/6 times 1/6.

2006-08-22 13:14:46 · answer #1 · answered by Carlos R 5 · 1 0

well, the key word here is AND. (probability of getting a 5 AND 2) AND means that you need to multiply the two probabilities.
(P5 AND P2)
=1/6 * 1/6
=1/36

2006-08-22 13:10:14 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1/6 because there are six numbers on a dice. and 1/6 again for the 2 because of the same reason so 1/6 x 1/6. i hope this helps.

ask me for any other math questions.
do not listen to the fisrt 2 anwsers b/c they are totally wrong.

2006-08-22 13:10:17 · answer #3 · answered by nickistheman6 3 · 0 0

eww!! i hated probability in algebra 2 AND in pre-cal. and i'm taking AP STATS next year!! boo!! well i would od it this way:

1. getting a 5 on one dice is 1/6
2. getting a 2 on one dice is 1/6

you either times 1/6 and 1/6 or you add it... soo i think the answer is either 1/36 or 2/6 or 1/3... but don't rely on me.. i FAILED the probability test and quiz... hhehe but that would be my guess..

2006-08-22 13:13:49 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

With this kind of probability problem, you are dealing with two independent events and trying to figure out the odds of both of them happening.

The probability of rolling a single die and getting a 5 is one of out six (that's easy, right?)

The odds of rolling a single die and getting a 2 is also one out of six.

Now to find the probability of getting first the five and the six, you have to multiply the probability of each independent event. That gives you the odds of both happening.

So 1/6 x 1/6 = 1/36

Another way to think about this is to think about all the possible pairs of outcomes from two rolls of the die. There are 36 possible results:

(1,1), (1,2), (1,3), (1,4), (1,5), (1,6),
(2,1), (2,2), (2,3), (2,4), (2,5), (2,6),
(3,1), (3,2), (3,3), (3,4), (3,5), (3,6),
(4,1), (4,2), (4,3), (4,4), (4,5), (4,6),
(5,1), (5,2), (5,3), (5,4), (5,5), (5,6),
(6,1), (6,2), (6,3), (6,4), (6,5), (6,6)

Out of these 36 outcomes, there is only one outcome where you roll 5 first and 2 second.

2006-08-22 13:16:47 · answer #5 · answered by just♪wondering 7 · 0 0

ok....i think this is how you do it....
1. list the possible outcome
2. find how many times (5,2) appears
3. then use the formula: P(A)=No. of times A (5,2) occurs divided by No. of possible outcomes.

its gives the answer 1/36....try it(and if it works.....give me points plz)

2006-08-22 13:20:15 · answer #6 · answered by Deeptika 1 · 0 0

10 out of 12 all you do is just take away 2 from 12....Easy!

2006-08-22 13:08:52 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

its ten..you just times 5 and 2...

2006-08-22 13:08:40 · answer #8 · answered by sukka<3 2 · 0 0

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