If we take our total rationale for a particular punishment (let us say, a fine of $500 for shoplifting) as having various objectives or rationales (vengeance, incapacitation, reduction of future violations by showing the example of the punishment to other citizens, etc.) how much of that rationale for that specific punishment is rightly afforded the objective of reducing such offenses future? Is the punishment intended to reduce the likelihood of similar violations in the future? What percentage of total rationale ought rightly be afforded deterrence?
2006-08-22
09:45:48
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3 answers
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asked by
voltaire
3
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics