2006-08-22 04:33:51 · 6 answers · asked by pfsatx 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
The singularity/plurality of the verb is contingent upon the singularity/plurality of the underscored items. If they're singular, so is the verb (is), if they're plural, so is the verb (are). The "or" is irrelevant.
2006-08-22 05:09:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
John or Peter is to blame
Indians or Americans are to blame
you see the verb is governed only by the number of the subject
2006-08-22 04:46:54 · answer #2 · answered by raj 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In a series such as this, the accepted practice is the verb agrees in number with the last item.
If the series goes plural, plural, singular, then singular verb.
If it's singular, singular, plural, then plural verb.
2006-08-22 06:19:03 · answer #3 · answered by dollhaus 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
No, the verb relates to the subject only. Or does imply that there is more than one subject, but that's not really what you look at.
2006-08-22 04:39:24 · answer #4 · answered by kittyluver 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it might make a difference whether the "blanks" are singular.
Fill it in with Man, woman or child and it would be "is".
But with Men, women, or children, it would be "are"
I think?
2006-08-22 04:41:47 · answer #5 · answered by jooker 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No it doesn't.
No marks, irregularities, or imperfections ARE noted.
No marks, irregularities, or imperfections IS noted.
Which sounds better to you?
2006-08-22 04:41:23 · answer #6 · answered by SassySours 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋