I was playing around on Yahoo finance's stock screener and noticed that the institutional ownership for some companies is well over 100%. (Indeed there seemed to be one company called Hafmark financial with 484% institutional ownership.) I was curious to know how this was possible. Thanks in advance--Adam J
2006-08-22 04:25:54 · 6 answers · asked by Adam J 6 in Business & Finance ➔ Investing
This often happens after splits. Hallmark Financial (AMEX: HAF) split 1:6 on July 31, 2006:
http://finance.yahoo.com/q/hp?s=HAF
So the number of shares institutions own is current (post-split), while the total number of shares outstanding is not (pre-split) and will be updated when the company puts out the next set of quarterly financial statements.
2006-08-22 05:22:27 · answer #1 · answered by NC 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1
2016-12-24 00:33:29 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's much the same as when Derek Jeter gives 110% to winning the game.
2006-08-22 04:31:21 · answer #3 · answered by dummyfx 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
They own the company, the management, and the union.
2006-08-22 04:32:28 · answer #4 · answered by up.tobat 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Old accounting wisdom:
If you toture numbers enough, they'll admit to anything.
That's how Enron did it.
2006-08-22 04:33:24 · answer #5 · answered by Fulltime in my RV (I wish) 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
its just an expression, you can only truly have 100%
2006-08-22 04:32:34 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋