2006-08-21 18:27:43 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
Yes it is. You may think that because Brazilians speak Portuguese and not Spanish that they wouldn't be considered part of Latin America. However, like Spanish, Portuguese is a "romance" language that has its roots stemming from Latin. It is because the people of this region speak these languages that the region is known as Latin America.
2006-08-21 18:38:51 · answer #1 · answered by Richard B 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes , it's part of Latin America and includes territories in the Americas where Spanish : Mexico and most of Central America, South America, and (per land area and population) the Caribbean. This is synonymous with Ibero-America. Territories where other Romance languages such as French (e.g., Quebec in Canada) or derivatives like Papiamento or Kreyol predominate are frequently not reckoned as parts of Latin America in this view, despite the French origins of the concept. In the same way, the Dutch-speaking Surinam, Netherlands Antilles and Aruba and other English-speaking countries of the Americas are also not considered as parts of Latin America in this view.
2006-08-22 11:26:58 · answer #2 · answered by nonconformiststraightguy 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes
2006-08-21 18:33:28 · answer #3 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, of course.
2006-08-21 18:37:23 · answer #4 · answered by p.g 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes
2006-08-21 18:32:42 · answer #5 · answered by eddies_online_interests 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
i guess so
2006-08-21 18:32:49 · answer #6 · answered by jason 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋