BTW, We live in Dallas, TX.
2006-08-21 15:01:31 · 20 answers · asked by smokierome 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Depends on if the house was purchased while you all were married. If you already had it before you were married then, it would be a hard fight.
2006-08-21 15:07:49 · answer #1 · answered by Backwoods Barbie 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are more things to consider than just if her name is on the deed. How long have you been married? How much do you make individually? How much has she invested in upkeep of the home? A lot of issues.
I faced a similar problem. Luckily I was able to wiggle out of it by threatening a long court battle when the ex wanted out of the divorce quickly. I got to keep my house and did not have to pay him anything.
2006-08-21 22:08:25 · answer #2 · answered by physandchemteach 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Anything you own is considered marital property, there is a chance she can get the house, better odds for you if you purchased the home before you were married, but anything owned by either of you is marital property, because the money to pay for and upkeep could have come from either of you and there is no proof of who actually coughed up the dough to pay the mortgage, fix the roof, or re-plumb the toilet.
2006-08-21 22:12:09 · answer #3 · answered by cjh1221 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
the only way that you could get around that is if it was left to you by someone upon death before you were married, in a will or something like that. get a good lawyer. When i got my divorce, my husband got everything except the clothes that I was wearing, and if the judge would not have been so nice, I might have lost those as well...
2006-08-21 22:09:19 · answer #4 · answered by Just Me 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If the house was obatined DURING the marriage then she it entitled to half. Anything you have before you got married is yours to keep. If you have kids together, it's only right to give her the house as we all know, child support is not NEARLY what it should be.
2006-08-21 22:13:01 · answer #5 · answered by lost_carolina 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on what the Law in Texas says. But, I have a suspicion that it is all community property......50/50.
2006-08-21 22:09:21 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Even if she is not in the Deed/Title, she legally owns 50% of it.
2006-08-21 23:04:57 · answer #7 · answered by alandicho 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That's all you worry about is the stupid house when your marriage is falling apart??
I think it all depends on the length of the marriage, if there's any children involved, etc. Ask your atty.
2006-08-21 22:08:56 · answer #8 · answered by windandwater 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
depends how long you two have been married for and if she is working if you two have not been married for to many years then no but if you have been married ten years and over then it may be possible she can obtain part of it ,if she hasnt been working then no sdhe wont get any of it
2006-08-21 22:21:39 · answer #9 · answered by jaye c 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
She is entitled to 1/2 of everything you both have. Try to work it out.
2006-08-21 22:10:52 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋