The Israeli army launching an attack was clearly in contravention of the cease-fire agreement.
However, Israel claims that they did not breach the agreement because they only attacked to stop Lebanon re-arming themselves, which was itself in contravention of the cease-fire.
So, Israel are claiming that because Lebanon broke the cease-fire first, their actions were not a breach.
Legally speaking (no inflamed opinions please!), and assuming Lebanon did breach the cease-fire first, are Israel right?
2006-08-21
06:26:22
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9 answers
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asked by
Gerontius
3
in
News & Events
➔ Current Events
To DeeZee - that is exactly the sort of inflamed opinion I didn't want: one that assumes that Israel is completely blameless when it's clear that nobody is without fault.
Nevertheless, it's the most revealing answer so far because of the flaw in the logic. You say the UN, Lebanon, Hezbollah and Iran are all breaching the peace in their different ways, so Israel have to do what they can. Unfortunately, the thing that Israel chose to do was to breach the peace themselves!
So many problems in the Middle East are caused by the fact that everyone responds to fire with fire. It's a natural thing to do, but not very productive in the long term. Both sides are claiming "victory" in the initial conflict as if they have won or achieved something, but I see no victory. Just people killing people.
I guess the answer also shows what everyone suspected: the ceasefire agreement wasn't worth wiping your bottom on.
2006-08-21
22:05:21 ·
update #1