2006-08-20 23:54:09 · 12 answers · asked by conyap t 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Newton's first law of motion:
An object at rest tends to stay at rest and an object in motion tends to stay in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
2006-08-21 02:10:14 · answer #1 · answered by ideaquest 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well, theoretically if we move an object quasistatically, it has no acceleration. But practically it's impossible to move it without accelerating. It's possible to achieve so little accelerations where it's impossible to tell, whether it's accelerating or not.
On other hand, if an object is at rest it's also moving - everything depends on point of view.
2006-08-21 00:07:16 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
if the whole universe moves say.. right, and the object stays still, then according to the theory of relativity, the object is moving left, without accelerating..
2006-08-21 19:15:14 · answer #3 · answered by ThoughTs 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe that if you had two bodies with competing gravitational fields, it is possible that the stronger of the 2 fields would dominate. If this were the case, it is possible that in relation to the body with weaker gravitational pull, that the object would appear to be moving, but in the truest sense, it is not, since it is being acted upon by the stronger gravitiational field.
2006-08-21 01:42:27 · answer #4 · answered by IknowNothing 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on what you mean by "move". Gravity waves cause the distance between two widely separated points to change without acceleration on either end because it alternately compresses and rarifies the intervening space itself.
2006-08-22 02:57:13 · answer #5 · answered by Dr. R 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it is moving at a constant velocity, then the acceleration is 0 (oh, and if it doesn't change direction).
2006-08-20 23:59:54 · answer #6 · answered by Stopwatch 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no longer if both speeds are with note of to an same merchandise. it really is critical to remember that % basically has a definition with note of to an merchandise or body of reference. In different words, if the universe became empty, you would possibly want to no longer tell how briskly you've been going. when you're on the line going 80mph, it really is critical to remember that that is 80mph with note of to the floor of the earth. If there is yet another automobile on an same highway doing 30mph interior an same direction as you, you're basically going 50mph with note of to the different automobile. So in a fashion that is plausible for an merchandise to "replace" its % without accelerating through measuring it adversarial to a diverse merchandise, yet in sensible words, no quite replace would have happened. it would want to were going both speeds the comprehensive time. The be conscious "acceleration" skill "a replace in %" so what you honestly basically requested is: "Is it plausible for a shifting merchandise to adjust % without its % replacing?" and that is of direction no longer plausible.
2016-11-26 21:04:14 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, even if it accelerates for only a microsecond then stays at constant velocity it still has to accelerate to get there!
2006-08-21 00:00:12 · answer #8 · answered by andyoptic 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Even if it's moving with constant velocity, it had to undergo acceleration to get to that velocity.
Doug
2006-08-21 00:05:19 · answer #9 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
acceleration is the change in speed over time... that means there is increase in the speed in the motion of movement. it is possible to have constant acceleration when in motion..
makes sense?
2006-08-21 02:08:44 · answer #10 · answered by smelly_ducks 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋