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2006-08-20 19:19:24 · 1 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Physics

1 answers

Hi nishi

By "matter waves" I'm going to assume you're talking about de Broglie waves. Louis de Broglie first suggested that the particle-like behaviour of light suggested by the photo-electric effect coupled with relativistic energy might imply that on small scales matter could behave like a wave. He worked out that an electron would have a characteristic wavelength L(lambda) given by:

L = h/p

where h is Planck's constant and p is the electron momentum. In the non relativistic (ie slow speed) limit this is approximately equal to:

L = h/mv

for m the mass of the electron and v its speed.

As a consequence, modern quantum physicists regard quantum objects as able to demonstrate both particle-like and also wave-like behaviour. This means that quantum light (photons) can behave like a particle or like a wave, and so can (for example) an electron. The archetypal demonstration of this is the double-slit experiment which you'd typically perform as an undergrad student in physics. Single quantum objects (photons or electrons) are fired through two slits onto a screen (normal for photons, flourescent for electrons). If the experimenter sets up detectors at the slits to detect which slit the electron passes through then the resultant pattern on the screen will be like two intersecting blobs (the electrons have behaved like particles and travelled through one slit or the other). If, however, the experimenter doesn't detect which slit the particles go through, then the pattern which builds up on the detector screen is one of interference fringes, which is what you get when waves interfere when passing through two narrow apertures (the electrons have behaved like waves).

This extraordinary result shows that quantum reality is quite different to our everyday classical intuition, and that matter can behave like a wave. Hence we need wave mechanics to be able to deal with such behaviour in matter.


Hope this helps!
The Chicken

2006-08-20 19:43:27 · answer #1 · answered by Magic Chicken 3 · 0 0

Despite the fact that there are two question marks, that is not really a question. It is not an inherent property of waves to require a medium. Electromagnetic waves do NOT require a medium to propagate, they are SELF propagating....they can even travel through a vacuum. Most other waves to require a medium in which the energy can transfer through, but it is not a property of all waves so it cannot be part of your so called "Wave definition".

2016-03-18 00:17:32 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

For the best answers, search on this site https://shorturl.im/axjI4

Here you'll find the definition of 'wave' and some (fun) examples

2016-04-09 00:32:00 · answer #3 · answered by Barbara 4 · 0 0

The wavelength of any moving particle is defined as the length obtained by dividing the Plank’s constant by the momentum of the particle.

2006-08-20 19:54:33 · answer #4 · answered by Pearlsawme 7 · 1 0

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