English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Will someone please explain to me why the Labour Party (Blair at least) allignes itself with the American GOP so intimately? I'm an american and from research it seems as if the Labour Party has more in common with our Democratic Party. Has the Labour Party changed over the years? Am I getting the theoretical deffinition of the Party and not new commonplace? Please shed some light and please don't just bash the givernments.

2006-08-20 12:55:19 · 4 answers · asked by platukism 2 in Politics & Government Government

4 answers

Many British people are baffled at the closeness of Bush and Blair. Blair is the most (small-c) conservative leader which the party has ever had and has changed it a lot, but most of its members are still to the left of even the Democrats. This is the party whose greatest legacy is the creation of the state-run healthcare system in 1948 - something which would be unthinkable in the US. Legally and and officially 'New' Labour, as Blair called it, is still the same party, he just sought to shed its image from the early 80s as being too far left, most noticeably by repealing the clause in the party's constitution calling for more state ownership of the means of production.

The alignment of which you speak is really just the leadership and not the whole parties, certainly not the grassroots. During the last US election Blair was keen that his MPs were not seen to be supporting John Kerry even though many wanted to. In her capacity as a lawyer his wife criticised aspects of America's war or terror in 2004, and you no doubt heard his deputy just said Bush was 'crap' on Middle Eastern policy. These may give a hint to Blair's real thoughts.

Maybe years from now when he writes his memoirs Blair will say what he really thinks of Bush - he is a smarter man and must know it - but apparently he seems to think the only way to defeat the al-Quaeda menace is to stick as closely to the US policy as possible, whatever private doubts he might have, and is resigned to having only a small role in influencing that policy. But this decision has hurt his reputation here more than anything else in nine years of power.

2006-08-20 20:36:51 · answer #1 · answered by Dunrobin 6 · 0 0

As Ralph Nader put it," The only difference between the Republicans & the Democrates is the velocity at which their knees hit the floor, when the Corporate World knocks on the door.". Blair is a sellout, plain and simple. The "Labour Party" is supposed to represent the working class, not the corporations. In the US, the working class has no representation. If you did you would at least have some type of medicare for your working poor.

2006-08-20 13:45:00 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It has to do with 9/11.
Britian prime minster did what any other leader would do offer his assistance in any way possible.

No one can judge him for that he was sincere. HOWEVER, he made the mistake of keeping his word even when it was going to be exploited.


On Sept 12, The Bush adminstration debated whether to attack Iraq at the same time.

Iraq had been on the table since the Cheney closed door engery meetings.

They went to Afganistan first.....That was Justice.

What bush then did was exploit blaire..........

Bush wanted to go into Iraq without any U.N discussion. NOne.

Blarie swore to go to war with Iraq if Bush promised to go through the U.N first.

Blaire thought he could keep things honest...Chump.
He kept his word and went to war.....

2006-08-20 13:20:00 · answer #3 · answered by nefariousx 6 · 0 0

Labour Party and the American GOP has the same views of party alignment. Thus, they complement each other and have the same intentions in running the government making them to cooperate in their plan of actions.

2006-08-20 13:26:45 · answer #4 · answered by FRAGINAL, JTM 7 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers