YES, as long as there is NO argeement for her to move out---she has the right to stay
2006-08-19 07:33:46
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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It entirely depends on the state laws, and whether the home is the separate property of the husband, community property, or jointly owned property.
Each of those situations could give you a different result. For example, in a community property state, if the home is the separate property of the husband, and no community assets were used for maintenance or upkeep, then technically the husband can argue that sole ownership means sole rights to determine exclusive access. Even to a spouse.
It all depends on what state laws are in effect, as well as various other factual details. There is no single answer across the board.
2006-08-19 14:41:31
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answer #2
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answered by coragryph 7
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I work in a family law firm, and deal with questions like this all the time. The answer is yes. She has every right to remain in the home until an agreement is made on who gets to keep the house, whether or not the couple wants to sell the home, etc. A lot of times its not easy to decide this, but until there is actualy a signed Order from both the petitioner and respondent, opposing counsel, your attorney and the judge...she has every right to stay living in the home. I would contact a family law attorney... they are very helpful.
2006-08-19 14:39:08
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answer #3
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answered by cutiepiekisses 2
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Unless there is some other arrangement, a wife legally married to her husband owns half the home already. She can reside in her half.
2006-08-19 14:34:01
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answer #4
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answered by © 2007. Sammy Z. 6
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you mean after filing for divorce? I don't get it, most wives who are married live with their husband
2006-08-19 14:33:09
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answer #5
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answered by hichefheidi 6
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No, they don't have the right if the home belongs to the man.
2006-08-19 15:05:32
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answer #6
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answered by skyeblue 5
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not with their conkubyne
2006-08-19 14:37:55
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answer #7
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answered by dale 5
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