2006-08-19 05:08:07 · 21 answers · asked by Adam 1 in Dining Out ➔ United States ➔ Other - US Dining Out
there is no rule that says they cant, many places have bottles of both, if they have fountain sodas, its usually gonna be just one or the other
2006-08-20 18:44:05 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Coke and Pepsi make exclusive deals with most restaurants to serve their products. Coke and Pepsi probably offer the restaurants incentive to use their product exclusively.
Coke and Pepsi carry the same types of sodas, so there's not an urgent need to carry both brands.
If you have both, that means you have to order from both manufacturers, and the restaurant would have to keep track of twice as many sodas in the stock and ordering process.
Some restaurants, like Pizza Hut, Taco Bell, and KFC, are owned by Pepsi, so it's a no-brainer they sell Pepsi products.
2006-08-19 05:16:12 · answer #2 · answered by Paul 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They can, and some do! A lot of chains are conneted with Pepsi or Coke, so they serve only their products. If it is family owned the main reason is the cost. We have Pepsi products in our restaurant because Pepsi supplied us with all the equipment and we must purchase so much each month to keep the equipment. If we offered Coke too, we would also have to purchase so much products....we would never go through that amount. So we keep a few Coke products for the ones who will drink only Coke....me being one of them!
2006-08-19 05:18:48 · answer #3 · answered by Rea 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
A restaurant can serve whatever it wants, so it could have both.
Larger chains will make agreements with one or the other and lock in a price and/or equipment in exchange for only carrying the one brand. Other restaurants usually choose to carry one brand of "cola" based on preference, sales, cost, etc.
2006-08-19 09:01:00 · answer #4 · answered by brufff 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because, unfortunately, they have to sign a contract with either Pepsi or Coke.
2006-08-19 05:13:55 · answer #5 · answered by snowdrop 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it extremely is authentic, serving the two is conflict of pastime, and the eating place is in all threat tied to a pair style of contract. many times what i've got got here upon is that Pepsi dominates the eating place industry as unfavorable to Coke is greater focused on grocery shops etc.
2016-12-17 13:36:43 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its a government conspiracy started by Bill clinton during his term. It will continue until the government has everyone divided on colas and then their will be civil unrest. Leave, flee the country now while you can. Go to a country which is nuetral on the cola wars
2006-08-19 06:50:40 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
They sign a contract with their soft drink provider to only serve whatever brand the soft drink provider sells.
2006-08-19 05:13:54 · answer #8 · answered by cool_breeze_2444 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Haha, I never thought about that before. It probably does have to do with contracts though. It's one of those things you don't really think about--- like, why doctors sanitize lethal injection needles.
2006-08-19 05:17:39 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
They get an exclusive contract with one or the other. They get paid to offer only one or the other.
2006-08-19 05:14:31 · answer #10 · answered by kreevich 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because they have to sign a contract with one company or another.
2006-08-19 05:14:29 · answer #11 · answered by AcidBurn003 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋