100-100/100-100=2? can any prove this question.?

Answer 1

No, because it reduces to 1=2, which is false.

Answer 2

100-100=0
0/0 does not equal 2

Answer 3

What, 100-100 = 2? Are you ridiculous.

Answer 4

Yaseen's answer is very interesting
However he divides above and below the line by (10-10)
This is not possible because 10-10 is zero.
The problem with the original post is the same. 100-100 is zero.
You cannot divide by zero so stop trying.

for me it is more of a theological problem. It is trying to say that infinity = 2
infinity can be both everynumber and a very large one kind of like a supreme being. I think the question has been misfiled.

Answer 5

100-100/100-100=2

2 2
(10) - (10) / 10 (10-10) =2

(10+10) (10-10) / 10 (10-10) =2

(10+10) / 10 =2

20/10=2

2=2

Hence Proved

Answer 6

100/100=1
=100-1-100
=99-100
=-1

Answer 7

what ever you do 100-100/100-100=2 won't be possible

Answer 8

Since none of the numbers have the BASE in which they are expressed specified, this equation could be satisfied if it were re-written:

100(BASE4) - 100(BASE4)/100(BASE2) -100(BASE2) = 2(BASE4)

Which evaluates to:
8 - 8/4 - 4 = 2

or

2=2
Lame, I know - but hey, it works.

Answer 9

100-100=0 therefore answer is0/0. Also 0*2 is 0 therefore the answer is 2
100-100/100-100=0/0
0 multiplied by any number is the number itself......... so any number can be the answer
GOOD QUESTION

Answer 10

technically, i don't think it mathematically possible to evaluate this question to 2 but i saw yassen's post and it got me thinking.
what if we had a similar equation but with unknowns say
a^2 - b^2/a^2 - b^2 where a and b could be any number. this would eventually be evaluated to 1 but since a and b could be any number then a could be equal to b and we have the same scenario as above. the conclusion IMO is that it is theoretically possible but mathematically impossible

Answer 11

100/100=1
100-1=99
99-100=-1

Looking the other way...
100-100=0
100-100=0
0/0=0

Nope, sorry