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is
a^(2)-b^(2)
=(a-b)^(2)+2b(a-b)
true?

2006-08-18 23:59:57 · 9 answers · asked by rajesh bhowmick 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

9 answers

True

2006-08-19 04:15:51 · answer #1 · answered by SAMUEL D 7 · 0 0

This doesn't look like a formula to me.

I call it the 'brute force' way. Usually used during tests and exams when we know the destinations, i.e. the target expression.

E.g. in the working half way you arrive at a^2-b^2, but you know the answer is or of the form of k(a-b)^2 + ...

Just write first term down, you will have
k(a-b)^2, which gives you ka^2 -2kab + kb^2,
but you need only 1 a^2, k=1, so you get a^2-2ab+b^2
but you don't need -2ab while you need a (-1)*b^2, so remove the -2ab by adding 2ab and add -2b^2 so that b^2 can become -b^2, so you get
(a^2-2ab+b^2) + 2ab - 2b^2
= (a-b)^2 +2b(a-b)
The above mental process only takes few seconds, and can be skipped, i.e. cheating, if you are confident enough and the destination is exactly given.

2006-08-19 12:02:50 · answer #2 · answered by back2nature 4 · 0 0

Expand (a-b)^2 + 2b(a-b) = a^2 + b^2 - 2ab + 2ab - 2b^2

= a^2 - b^2

Hence true.

2006-08-19 07:19:43 · answer #3 · answered by DG 3 · 0 0

a^2 - b^2 = (a-b)^2 + 2b(a-b)
= a^2 + b^2 - 2ab + 2ab - 2b^2
= a^2 + b^2 - 2b^2
= a^2 - b^2
Where did you take maths?

2006-08-19 07:21:02 · answer #4 · answered by just "JR" 7 · 0 0

yes,it is
(a-b)^2+2b(a-b)=a^2+b^2-2ab+2ab-2b^2=a^2-b^2

2006-08-19 07:26:31 · answer #5 · answered by raj 7 · 0 0

Yes it is. Just do the maths

2006-08-19 10:37:26 · answer #6 · answered by Rick Blaine 2 · 0 0

yes that is equal i visualize it in my brain cause that is simple. I don't visual other than that simply.

2006-08-19 07:27:06 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

yes it is

2006-08-19 07:04:59 · answer #8 · answered by socrmom 2 · 0 0

yes and you know that.

2006-08-19 07:11:20 · answer #9 · answered by gjmb1960 7 · 0 0

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