True
2006-08-19 04:15:51
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answer #1
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answered by SAMUEL D 7
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This doesn't look like a formula to me.
I call it the 'brute force' way. Usually used during tests and exams when we know the destinations, i.e. the target expression.
E.g. in the working half way you arrive at a^2-b^2, but you know the answer is or of the form of k(a-b)^2 + ...
Just write first term down, you will have
k(a-b)^2, which gives you ka^2 -2kab + kb^2,
but you need only 1 a^2, k=1, so you get a^2-2ab+b^2
but you don't need -2ab while you need a (-1)*b^2, so remove the -2ab by adding 2ab and add -2b^2 so that b^2 can become -b^2, so you get
(a^2-2ab+b^2) + 2ab - 2b^2
= (a-b)^2 +2b(a-b)
The above mental process only takes few seconds, and can be skipped, i.e. cheating, if you are confident enough and the destination is exactly given.
2006-08-19 12:02:50
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answer #2
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answered by back2nature 4
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Expand (a-b)^2 + 2b(a-b) = a^2 + b^2 - 2ab + 2ab - 2b^2
= a^2 - b^2
Hence true.
2006-08-19 07:19:43
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answer #3
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answered by DG 3
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a^2 - b^2 = (a-b)^2 + 2b(a-b)
= a^2 + b^2 - 2ab + 2ab - 2b^2
= a^2 + b^2 - 2b^2
= a^2 - b^2
Where did you take maths?
2006-08-19 07:21:02
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answer #4
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answered by just "JR" 7
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yes,it is
(a-b)^2+2b(a-b)=a^2+b^2-2ab+2ab-2b^2=a^2-b^2
2006-08-19 07:26:31
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answer #5
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answered by raj 7
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Yes it is. Just do the maths
2006-08-19 10:37:26
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answer #6
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answered by Rick Blaine 2
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yes that is equal i visualize it in my brain cause that is simple. I don't visual other than that simply.
2006-08-19 07:27:06
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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yes it is
2006-08-19 07:04:59
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answer #8
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answered by socrmom 2
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yes and you know that.
2006-08-19 07:11:20
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answer #9
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answered by gjmb1960 7
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