2006-08-18 16:52:27 · 8 answers · asked by tankdelivers 1 in Cars & Transportation ➔ Boats & Boating
ah come on man think! look on the can of the oil for a gallon
then find the amont that the motor takes if it saids 15 .5 gallon
I know it does not hold that much or to little but this is an example
get a 5 galllon gas can fill it up mix it for 5 gallons measure how mush oil that was times that by 3 write that on paper pour that in the gas tank then mix up another 1 gallon of gas and fill the tank.
any 2 cycle oil can will tell you that per gallon it is no different for any motor on the face of this planet
2006-08-18 17:06:31 · answer #1 · answered by Paul G 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
40 to 1
2006-08-18 17:02:14 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
didn't make an 88hp motor. if you mean 80 horse then it should have a vro. variable ratio oiler. it's the same component that is also your fuel pump. ratio changes with rpm. if you want to mix your own with the fuel then use 50:1 ratio.aproximately 6 gallons fuel to 1 pint of 2stroke oil.
2006-08-19 07:28:37 · answer #3 · answered by mnuzak 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
i have a 76 evinrude and i use 50:1
2006-08-18 17:16:20 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
50:1
2006-08-18 17:00:40 · answer #5 · answered by Lawrence H 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
one pint of outboard oil to 6 gallons of gas. Its usually standard for 2 cycle engines.
2006-08-19 01:52:14 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
im pretty sure that it is 100 to 1. my 1975 70hp rude is.i know that for sure.....i think mercs are 100 to 1 ..my 1988 merc is anyway......and rudes are 50 to 1......may be different for an 88 but im rather sure your answer is 50 to 1....buy the repair manual , if u really want to be sure, it will be in there
2006-08-22 04:27:59 · answer #7 · answered by ERIC W 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
32:1 to 50:1
Always best to err on the up side of 50:1
2006-08-18 17:06:55 · answer #8 · answered by texbow 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋