If it has declined, at a rate higher than the rate of populaton growth in Pakisthan, does it indicate conversion to Islam?
2006-08-18 14:39:12 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
According to the UN estimated population, the Hindus were 6,46,000 in 1951 which became 20,18,000 in 1991 where as the Muslim population has grown from 3,92,86,000 to 11,84,75,000 during the same period. The rate of growth in both the communities is the same. The apprehension that there has been conversion to Islam is unfounded.
2006-08-20 07:25:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I Assume you mean Pakistan
indicates that 96% of the population are Muslims Census data[36] The remainder comprises of Christians and Hindus, Jews, Sikhs, Zoroastrians, Ahmadis, and Animists (mainly the Kalasha of Chitral).
2006-08-18 21:53:39 · answer #2 · answered by Ali 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
144,616,639 (July 2001 est.)
about 70 million in 1947
2006-08-18 21:55:17 · answer #3 · answered by hick_chix_77 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Dang, I've got it just on the tip of my tongue......ahhhh....Oh heck, I forgot...
2006-08-18 21:45:18 · answer #4 · answered by slandguy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋