2006-08-18 09:58:21 · 5 answers · asked by Iloveitwhenyoucallmebigpoppa 2 in Social Science ➔ Sociology
I think its both. For me I like to have some kind of feelings for a man before I sleep with him. I think that is the case for a lot of other women. Men don't need to have feelings for the lady because its more physical fun for men when its more emotional for a woman. Now when a woman don't have to have feelings for a man to sleep with him and she does have sex all willy nilly. Society says she's a slut. Reason for me believing that its a little of both... Just my opinion
2006-08-18 10:07:28 · answer #1 · answered by sha scrilla 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is most certainly gender. It is almost a biological imperitive for a male to spread his seed and breed as far as possible.
For a female, it is equally imperitive to be very picky and select the best mate possible.
Now, sex for reasons outside ot breeding has an obvously different purpose, but, the biological imperitives still remain as part of out psyche.
And a note to "TD J." It's not "society." It's only the male half of society who sees it your way.
2006-08-18 17:26:04 · answer #2 · answered by Vince M 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because society places women to different standards then men. We all know the if a women sleeps around she's considered a whore or sl*t, while a guy is a stud or player. It's society.
2006-08-18 17:05:02 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I think society plays a major part in the role of sexuality amoungst males and females
2006-08-18 21:12:38 · answer #4 · answered by ozi_nut 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Is "anonymous" sex ever really safe, though??
2006-08-18 17:04:46 · answer #5 · answered by SassySours 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋