I was watching an MLB game sometime last week and there were 2 strikes on board. (I don't remember the game or the details so pls don't ask). The batter hit a foul ball and it was called a 3rd strike. I always thought that if there are already 2 strikes on board, any foul ball after that is a "freebie". Please educate me!
2006-08-18 04:38:11 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports ➔ Baseball
The batter can make contact with the ball and it can be considered a strike if the catcher catches the ball and holds on to it. The umpire could make the foul ball signal and will still call strike 3 if the batter just grazed the ball and it never makes contact with the ground or anything else other the the catchers mitt. Otherwise the batter can keep fouling off pitches forever.
Attempting to bunt with two strikes and fouling it off is also an out.
2006-08-18 04:50:03 · answer #1 · answered by Dah veed 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
If there are already 2 strikes on the batter...the only way a foul ball can be a 3rd strike, is it it was tipped & the catcher caught it before it hit the ground. In that case, it's considered a "FOUL TIP Caught 3rd strike".
If the batter tries to BUNT with 2 strikes, and the ball goes foul, then it is considered strike 3 as well. Anytime you bunt a ball foul, with 2 strikes on the hitter, it's called a strikeout.
2006-08-18 05:05:01 · answer #2 · answered by brianwerner1313 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To my knowledge there are two ways this would be an out.
1 - If the batter attempts a bunt with 2 strikes and he/she bunts it foul it will be strike 3 and the batter is out.
2 - If there are 2 strikes and the batter swings but hits a foul-tip that is then immediately caught by the catcher, the batter is out.
My guess is that what you saw was the second situation.
Hope this helps.
2006-08-18 04:48:35 · answer #3 · answered by Justin B 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You state that the batter hit a foul ball with 2 strikes and it was called a strike, and therefore he was out. The only way this could happen is if a player on the other team caught the ball. Its not really a strike, but he would be out and it might seem that way. Otherwise, like stated, you can hit foul balls all day.
2006-08-18 04:46:43 · answer #4 · answered by nicholas_fahrenkopf 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The only way a foul ball will be the third strike and the batter out is if it is bunted foul after two strikes.
2006-08-18 05:41:29 · answer #5 · answered by Rey817 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If there are two strikes on a batter and he fouls one off, he is out if:
1) He attempted to bunt and the ball goes foul (which i dont know why he would)
or
2) If he fouls one straight back into the catchers glove and he catches the ball. If the catcher drops it then it is a "freebie".
2006-08-18 06:46:59 · answer #6 · answered by gillby00 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The only way a foul ball is a "called 3rd strike", is when there is a 2 strike count, and the batter tips it, the ball goes into the catchers glove, and the catcher hangs onto it.
2006-08-18 04:46:59 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
A foul ball is considered a 3rd strike when you are attempting to bunt.
2006-08-18 04:47:29 · answer #8 · answered by robbo2112 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope. The batter can continue to hit fouls forever until that last strike. I have no idea what happened there. Maybe the Ump screwed up, hmmm, what a shocker.
2006-08-18 04:45:07 · answer #9 · answered by Mr. Versatile 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is only strike 3 if the ball is bunted. Otherwise, there is no limit to the amount of foul balls.
2006-08-18 04:46:19 · answer #10 · answered by clone1973 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋