His book "Thus Spake Zoroaster" must mean he was influenced by something in Persia, but it isn't clear from the book--no biographical info to say he visited Iran...
2006-08-18 02:55:59 · 6 answers · asked by Maldives 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
didn't read this book
2006-08-18 02:59:51 · answer #1 · answered by idontkno 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If for the past 2500 years Zarathustra’s ideas and views on the existence and the world have been an integral part of the European culture, this very long period, however, has not always been a love story. It has been marked by the alternation of the highest veneration for Zarathustra and the deepest rejection of him.
The main interest for the European intellectuals in Zarathustra was that they thought having found a weapon against the power of the Church. To them the Church did not have anymore the monopoly of the truth. The truth could also be found in a non-Christian tradition, much older than Christianity.
His work based on an extremely well understanding of Zarathustra’s revolutionary concept and ideal, rendered in European thought, is considered as the final victory in the struggle against the power of the Church in Europe. It changed radically the European thought of modern times, delivering people from the sins they had never committed
2006-08-18 10:19:22 · answer #2 · answered by tough as hell 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
German philosopher Friedrich Nietzsche used the name of Zarathustra in his 1885 seminal book Also sprach Zarathustra (Thus Spoke Zarathustra). Nietzsche fictionalizes and dramatizes Zarathustra toward his own literary and philosophical aims, presenting him as a returning visionary who repudiates the designation of good and evil and thus marks the observation of the death of God. Nietzsche asserted that he had chosen to put his ideas into the mouth of Zarathustra because the historical prophet had been the first to proclaim the manicheic opposition between "good" and "evil", by rejecting the DaÄva (representing natural forces) in favor of a moral order represented by the Ahuras. It was this act that Nietzsche proposed to invert. Beyond Good and Evil, however, does not mean "beyond good and bad", as he warned in this work
2006-08-18 09:59:43 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because he read something by Zoroaster and Nietzsche said holy crap this guy is right
2006-08-18 10:01:07 · answer #4 · answered by crage_ralius 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
hee haaaaaaaaaawwwww
2006-08-18 10:00:50 · answer #5 · answered by Mr. Owl 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
whaty what what
2006-08-18 10:00:13 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋