If there is absolutely no risk of STDs (partner has had a blood-screening) then is there any need for him to wear a condom during sex?
Supposedly there is a high pregnancy history in my family, in my mother and grandmother (my mother's mother). Is this a problem?
2006-08-18 02:47:42 · 20 answers · asked by Jayna 2 in Health ➔ Women's Health
I take my pill perfectly -- within 30 seconds every night.
2006-08-18 02:56:19 · update #1
Not from STDs. You still need a condom for that
2006-08-18 02:52:12 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 7⤊ 0⤋
Nothing is 100% safe but if you take the pill like you're suppoed to, 3 - 5 out of 100 women get pregnant every year. Don't be scared of all these replies, you should be fine on the pill and it's either you take birth control or never have sex. I don't know why people are acting like you taking the pill isn't going to do much. You can find more information about it here http://www.sexinfo101.com/forum/ Also the pill does not protect against STD's, you do have to use a condom for that.
2006-08-18 10:01:14 · answer #2 · answered by Hiei 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Nothing is absolutely foolproof, except for abstinence. I would have him wear a condom. While marriage does not always mean a man will remain faithful and could never give you an std, a boyfriend does not have the same committment to a relationship that a married couple would have. Just because he tested negative this time does not mean he could not go out and contract an std and pass it on to you in the future. Always protect yourself. Besides, given your family history, why take a chance?
2006-08-23 20:29:59 · answer #3 · answered by Orrie 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
NOthing is 100% effective to prevent pregnancy. I got pregnant on the pill. The pill does not protect against STDs or HIV. IF you want to have a better chance of not getting pregnant use the pill in combination with a condom with spermicide. or dont have sex
2006-08-24 14:40:35 · answer #4 · answered by llllll_amanda_lllllll 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No form of contraception is 100% effective, not even the pill. If you have a family history of high pregnancy, especially in your mother's side of the family (which means you probably got that gene too) you should use a "back-up" form of contraception like condoms.
2006-08-18 09:52:58 · answer #5 · answered by sarge927 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It depends...if he's clean & your clean, there shouldn't be any risk of STD's unless someone cheats.
Second, if you have a high pregnancy risk, I would be careful, if you even miss one pill or if you take it later in the day than you normally do, the rest of that month is shot, the pill no longer works properly, like your risk of pregnancy increase by like 50%, its huge.
Hope this helps.
2006-08-18 09:55:29 · answer #6 · answered by Queen_Bee 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You would probably be okay. Since I understand how much more uncomfortable it is to be using a condom, if you are worried about there being such a high pregnancy rate, maybe you could wear a condom while you are ovulating, and go without other times. And, never forget to take your pill!
2006-08-18 09:54:50 · answer #7 · answered by parachute 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
it is somewhat safe, but the pill is not 100% effective so there is still a chance you could get pregnant. to be extra safe, you should probably keep track of when you fertile period is, and even if your partner is clean now, make him get regular check ups.
2006-08-18 10:02:36 · answer #8 · answered by Niecy 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Nothing is 100% effective against pregnancy, but abstinence. You are safer using more than one method of birth control.
2006-08-18 09:54:44 · answer #9 · answered by TJMiler 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The pill does not prevent any sexually transmitted deceases so you still will need a condom for that.
2006-08-18 09:59:08 · answer #10 · answered by fasb123r 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋