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There are many people that are sexually stimulated in various "unique" ways that are considered by many "unnatural". Some are stimulated by violence (Sadists). Some by children, (pedaphiles/disgusting). Some by animals. All of these are mocked and shunned by society, (at least I hope so). Many of these have these desires their whole lives.

Why, then, is homosexuality distinguished? Why do some want to prove homosexuality is genetic, but not pedaphilia, sadism, etc...?

[Vulgar, immature, and otherwise inappropriate responses not wanted]

2006-08-17 15:31:46 · 13 answers · asked by man_id_unknown 4 in Social Science Other - Social Science

13 answers

Our society's is losing it's morality. Soon pedophilia, sadism, etc. will be tolerated. Isn't that what happened to Rome before it fell?

2006-08-17 15:39:13 · answer #1 · answered by what the heck? 3 · 2 5

In my opinion formed for I tend to think and reason issues out sadism is a learned behavior and so is pedophilia for all began due to early (probably)childhood experience which they then themselves continued doing to again experience the initial pleasure. Not all Homosexuality is due to genetics for some also due to a experience that was liked and repeated to feel again and its this type that has some success to change to heterosexual with therapy. There is homosexuality due to genetics-where since very small children they identify with the other sex and not what their body reflects-due to something occurring in the chromosome process and more than likely occurring at or soon after conception-those are the true Homosexuals . A little boys and vice verse entire psychological makeup tells him he's a girl and where his male hormones tested it would show much more female hormones throughout his system than male-out of his choice control. Through the ages also in various civilizations Homosexuality was accepted by society-as in the Roman,Greek an even in some indigenous society's acc.to special I saw on New Zealand. But sex with children has always been taboo by the standards set by the majority.Sadism also is not acceptable for it involves pain(not a majority thing) humiliation and so forth. Also by Natures rules sex with animals is taboo.

2006-08-17 15:54:00 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I think because the ones that are into children and animals and violence are beyond hope. They are so far removed from what society expects they just let them go. But for homosexuals they see them as adults that went astray. That maybe if we can explain away or find some cure for these ppl they will be welcomed back into society and breed more "normal" and socially acceptable children. That just being gay or a lesbian or even bi, was just some silly experience they had, but now they are fixed and good as new.

2006-08-17 15:56:01 · answer #3 · answered by Bloody Kisses 4 · 1 0

Because homosexuality simply ISN'T on par with pedophilia or bestiality.

Homosexuality consists of consenting adults not doing anything against anybody's will. Pedophilia is sex with a child that either doesn't want it, or is simply too young to understand it and even if it were genetic it would be harmful to others and can not be tolerated.

Homosexuality is different from pedophilia or bestiality simply because it is mutually consentual. Both parties like the idea, both parties are old enough to understand the idea and they aren't harming anybody. It doesn't matter if it's genetic or if the decision was solely in their hands, it harms nobody so i don't see why anybody should care either way.

Also, I don't feel there's anything wrong with sadism if it's consented to. Some people like inflicting pain, some like receiving it. Neither are my game of choice, but if others enjoy it, hey, go for it.

2006-08-17 15:37:45 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

It doesnt matter if its genetic or you were born with it. It is a defect just like being bipolar is a defect. Everyone has a defect. It might be that you are color blind or a small grey spot on the back of your head when your born. However, to express this defect is bad. As a bipolar, one may act like a b*tch or want to take their clothes off. Both are behaviors that can be changed or at least withheld. Expressing the gene by kissing another guy is wrong, but being gay itself may not be if you are born with it.

An alcholic is born with a gene for alcoholism, yet that gene cannot be "turned on" or "expressed" until you drink a glass of alchol and it cant mutate to the state that your an alcholic until you have multiple exposures.

I think gays have genes too that must be "expressed". They must be sexually abused or exposed to homesexuality by looking at photos or seeing a family member who is gay. Being exposed multiple times mutates that gene. However just because its a defect doesnt mean it shouldnt be treated and counsiled and the behavior is not normal.

to answer your quetion, the medical community had to come up with a DME code or distinguish being gay in the 1970's to be able to bill the insurance companies for it. They cant bill unless its a disease.

2006-08-17 15:42:56 · answer #5 · answered by circusdejojo 3 · 1 1

Very good question! i'm sure some low ball on the chain is working on it somewhere for the other unique desires... It's not on top of the chain because it's not spoken about as frequently as homosexuality and because homosexuality is more frequent and more acceptable more public studies are done..
I know they have studied pedaphiiles due to the crime aspect. you will see some one this show called most evil on a&e or one of those stations...
soon as sadists come out more then it won't be studied as publicly but students that are in science could be working on that.
Great question I enjoyed it much
Mad luv to ya!

2006-08-17 15:41:11 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Umm, are you heavily suggesting that ants and bees and different social insects are evolutionary mess united statesdue to the fact no longer all and distinctive of their individuals reproduces furiously? they look to do extremely properly with in uncomplicated words a fragment of all their individuals reproducing, so it is ridiculous to signify that different organisms won't be able to do fantastic with 5-10% of their individuals no longer reproducting. (Fewer than that for many human history, the position human beings, exceptionally women human beings, procreated no matter if or not they needed to or no longer) twin analyze instruct that there is a partial genetic link. there is not any getting round that. We also see gay habit in thousands of different species. there is no longer keeping off that actuality both. analyze also instruct that gay men have really more effective older brothers than immediately men do, suggeting that something about arising on a womb the position previous men more desirable impacts issues besides. So it organic and organic. absolute self assurance. you may bypass from right here to Timbuktu, and hardly ever come across a soul, gay or immediately who wont' allow you to recognize that their orientation is merely what's organic to them, and by no skill a decision in any respect. there grow to be yet another study exhibiting that the female relatives individuals of gay men have more effective children. So it would want to be the same allele of one gene, that in some contexts, makes someone gay, and in different contexts, makes someone more effective fertile.

2016-11-25 23:27:12 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Because pedophiles are criminals when they act on their urges. whether or not it's genetic: they HARM people. Homosexuals (usually) seek out other willing partners. no one is HARMED. I think consent is very inportant here, and I think that the connection between gays and pedophiles is a slippery slope that is to be avoided.

2006-08-17 15:36:20 · answer #8 · answered by Rams N 4 · 1 0

Because homosexuals, like heterosexuals, are in consenting relationships with other like-minded adults. Pedophiles are not in consenting relationships, by no stretch of the imagination!

2006-08-17 15:48:10 · answer #9 · answered by BasketChick 3 · 0 0

http://www.familyresearchinst.org/FRI_EduPamphlet2.html
it is distinguished, I suppose, because it is not in a category with the other""choices" you mentioned.One reason some may want to "prove" the genetic component is that they feel it will lend credibility to this choice.Although this link is not directly related to your question, I found it interesting so I included it.

2006-08-17 15:47:23 · answer #10 · answered by Silva 6 · 0 0

The difference is mutual consent, which is absent from the other deviant behavious you mentioned.

2006-08-17 15:39:02 · answer #11 · answered by flugelberry 4 · 1 1

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