With steps...
2006-08-17
05:43:56
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15 answers
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asked by
outofthisworld
2
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics
Mr. im not in high school, and this is no HW. i was just curious, how do they solve this, as i wasnt able to find the proof anywhere.
2006-08-17
05:50:19 ·
update #1
ok if we use L'hoptital's rule then do u know that we find the derivative of e^x by this limit only.
2006-08-17
05:52:55 ·
update #2
Ya thats true we can use taylor series for e^x. but we derive the series by using the derivatives of e^x. and that we calculate by this limit.so u dont solve the fundamental by the derived thing.
2006-08-17
05:58:42 ·
update #3
Dont u people understand that to use L'hopital's rule we need the derivative of e^x which is calculated by this limit. how can u solve this with what u have derived from it.
2006-08-17
06:00:50 ·
update #4
This is the *definition* of the derivative of e^x at x=0. Since you know the derivative of e^x is e^x, let x=0 to get the limit is 1.
Now, you might ask why we know that the derivative of e^x is again e^x. That is again almost be definition. We know, through the limit definition of the derivative, that the derivative of a^x is a constant times a^x for any fixed number 'a'. For a=2, we can check directly that the constant is less than 1 and for a=3 that the constant is more than 1. We *define* e to be that value of 'a' for which the constant is equal to 1. That gives the derivative as we want it.
2006-08-17 05:56:18
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answer #1
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answered by mathematician 7
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E X 1 X
2016-12-24 20:07:34
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answer #2
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answered by ? 4
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The answer before mine is the proper and elegant way to solve the limit without L'Hopital's rule.
Remember that e^x is a continuous, real function which is defined for all real numbers x - the limit of e^x as x approaches - infinity is zero.
The derivative of e^x is itself - so its derivative is real and continuous. All derivatives of e^x are real and continuous as well.
2006-08-21 03:38:01
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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For the best answers, search on this site https://shorturl.im/axclZ
If a is a positive constant, d/dx(a^x)=a^x * ln(a). 1. Using definition of the derivative, f'(c)=\lim_{x \to c} (f(x)-f(c))/(x-c) with f(x)=a^x and c=0 gives us ln(a)=\lim_{x \to 0} (a^x-1)/x 2. Using L'Hospital's rule, \lim_{x \to 0} (a^x-1)/x =\lim_{x \to 0} d/dx( (a^x-1) )/ d/dx( x ) =\lim_{x \to 0} a^x * ln(a)/1 =ln(a). PS To see that the derivative of a^x is a^x ln (a). y=a^x Take the natural logarithm of both sides: ln(y)=x ln(a) Implicitly differentiate with respect to x: 1/y y'=ln(a) [remember, ln(a) is a constant.] Solve for y' y'=y ln(a) But, y=a^x so y'=a^x ln(a)
2016-04-02 01:38:28
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes, Mathematician is right. It's definitional. This is why it's called the "natural" base. It's the base for which the unnits of time in the usual differential equation
df/dt=kf
are taken such that k=1. The number you get by (for example) solving this iteratively and taking the limit is
(something)^t
where t is measured in the "natural units." The (something) is what we call "e".
2006-08-17 07:21:49
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answer #5
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answered by Benjamin N 4
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I've put a beautifully formatted solution at the link below. Take a look.
http://www.tomsmath.com/limit-of-e-to-the-x-minus-1-over-x-as-x-goes-to-zero.html
2014-07-07 08:16:36
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answer #6
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answered by ? 3
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As everyone has stated, this is a "typical" L'Hospital's rule problem or observed that
d/dx(e^x) at x=0 is
\lim_{x \to 0} (f(x)-(0))/(x-0)=(e^x-1)/x.
Since the derivative of e^x is e^x, its value at x=0 is 1 so the limit is 1.
We can also do it other ways without L'Hospital's rule.
Using series we know that e^x=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} x^k/k! so
e^x-1=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} x^k/k!
Thus,
(e^x-1)/x=(\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} x^k/k!)/x
=(\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} x^(k-1)/k!)
=1+x/2!+x^3/3!+...
Thus,
\lim_{x \to 0} (e^x-1)/x
= \lim_{x \to 0} (1+x/2!+x^3/3!+...)=1.
You should try computing \lim_{x \to 0} \sin(x) / x in the same ways! (That is using series, and then using the fact that \lim_{x \to 0} \sin(x) / x is the derivative of sin(x) at x=0: d/dx (sin(x))=cos(x) and cos(0)=1.) :)
2006-08-17 09:37:02
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Evaluate the function at x = 0.1 and x = - 0.1. Then evaluate the function at x = 0.01 and x = - 0.01. Keep doing this, making x smaller by a factor of 10^-1 each time, and you will see that the function approaches 1 from both sides.
So the limit is 1
2006-08-17 08:21:26
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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What a classic problem
Just remember that e^x = sum(x^k/k!) for k = 0 to ∞.
Now make the substitution x-1 for x in the expansion, work out the first few terms, and you'll see the pattern.
Then do the arithmetic
Doug
2006-08-17 05:54:24
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answer #9
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answered by doug_donaghue 7
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u would hav to do it with l'hopital's rule. and it would be:
limit as x approaches 0 ---> derivative of (e^x-1)/derivative of x
limit as x approaches 0 ---> e^x/1
answer is 1
2006-08-17 05:58:57
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answer #10
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answered by cd1ddy19 1
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