Lemma 1 - The sky is white like that big elephant in the room
Proof of Lemma 1 - ZOMG < WOWZA ; QED
Proposition 1 - Will you go to the prom with me
Theorem - a = b; if a = 1 and b = 1
By lemma 1 we have that me = HOT ~ WOWZA * inf > ZOMG > you with no prom date.
Thus we know that oranges are blue.
Thus we have that monkeys fly
And thus a = b.
^o) i hope not the answer you were looking for
2006-08-17 01:16:14
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Define the symbol 1 (not the number 1) to be equal to the symbol 2. This is the only way you will have 1 = 2. It follows that a = b as a = 1 and b = 2.
2006-08-17 22:52:20
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answer #2
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answered by king64_shahab 2
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Let's take this wonderful algebraic equation,
a^2 - b^2 = (a + b)(a - b)
1^2 - 2^2 = (1 + 2)(1 - 2)
1 - 4 = (3)(-1)
-3 = -3
therefore -3 =a and-3 =b
so
a = b
lol
2006-08-17 01:50:11
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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All of the proofs here involve dividing by 0, which is illegal!
Assume a=b and substitute to get 1=2. This is a contradiction so a!=b.
Any proof for the integers 1=2 is bogus!
2006-08-17 01:35:15
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answer #4
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answered by ? 4
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a=b
a=1 b=2
a= a+b = 3
b= ( a-b ==> 3 - 2 = 1 )
a = ( a - b = 3 - 1 = 2 )
Now, doesnt make sense what ever value u give to A or B ... both are equal ...
so A = You = 10000000$
B = Me = 0$
LOL .........
2006-08-17 01:31:49
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answer #5
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answered by meetjitesh 1
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Let: a = b
==> a^2 = ab
==> a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2
==> (a + b)(a - b) = b(a - b)
==> (a + b) = b
Since a = b
==> b + b = b
==> 2b = b
==> 2 = 1
Slick and cool.
2006-08-17 01:23:36
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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it is impossible to prove that by mathematical methods
you can prove that a function of a is equal to a function of b (which is what these people are doing by multiplying by 0... multiplying by 0 creates a function because all know that a*0!=a)
but not a = b for the numbers you want
2006-08-17 01:47:41
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answer #7
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answered by mommy_mommy_crappypants 4
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Let a=b
The a^2=ab
a^2+a^2 = a^2 + ab
2a^2 = a^2+ab
2a^2-2ab=a^2+ab-2ab
2a^2-2ab=a^2-ab
2(a^2-ab) = 1(a^2-ab)
Divide both sides by (a^2-ab)
Is that the answer that you were looing for? Well yeah u cant prove 2=1, cause that proof involved dividing by zero
2006-08-17 01:21:20
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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when a lady is expecting she is 1 but equals to 2
2006-08-17 01:29:53
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answer #9
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answered by Sachuu 2
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I studied an Actuarial Science degree and had to do several math courses as well. They have taught me how easy it is to do this question. Here it is:
Let a=1, Let b=2
Assume that a=b
Therefore 1=2 (by assumption)
See, simple and easy.
Hence, I assume that you will give me 10pts...he he
2006-08-17 01:18:21
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answer #10
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answered by orion 3
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