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take 'a' as 1 & 'b' as 2

2006-08-17 01:10:14 · 22 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

22 answers

Lemma 1 - The sky is white like that big elephant in the room

Proof of Lemma 1 - ZOMG < WOWZA ; QED

Proposition 1 - Will you go to the prom with me

Theorem - a = b; if a = 1 and b = 1

By lemma 1 we have that me = HOT ~ WOWZA * inf > ZOMG > you with no prom date.

Thus we know that oranges are blue.

Thus we have that monkeys fly

And thus a = b.

^o) i hope not the answer you were looking for

2006-08-17 01:16:14 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Define the symbol 1 (not the number 1) to be equal to the symbol 2. This is the only way you will have 1 = 2. It follows that a = b as a = 1 and b = 2.

2006-08-17 22:52:20 · answer #2 · answered by king64_shahab 2 · 0 0

Let's take this wonderful algebraic equation,

a^2 - b^2 = (a + b)(a - b)
1^2 - 2^2 = (1 + 2)(1 - 2)
1 - 4 = (3)(-1)
-3 = -3

therefore -3 =a and-3 =b
so
a = b

lol

2006-08-17 01:50:11 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

All of the proofs here involve dividing by 0, which is illegal!

Assume a=b and substitute to get 1=2. This is a contradiction so a!=b.

Any proof for the integers 1=2 is bogus!

2006-08-17 01:35:15 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

a=b

a=1 b=2

a= a+b = 3

b= ( a-b ==> 3 - 2 = 1 )


a = ( a - b = 3 - 1 = 2 )

Now, doesnt make sense what ever value u give to A or B ... both are equal ...

so A = You = 10000000$
B = Me = 0$

LOL .........

2006-08-17 01:31:49 · answer #5 · answered by meetjitesh 1 · 0 0

Let: a = b

==> a^2 = ab
==> a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2
==> (a + b)(a - b) = b(a - b)
==> (a + b) = b

Since a = b

==> b + b = b
==> 2b = b
==> 2 = 1



Slick and cool.

2006-08-17 01:23:36 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

it is impossible to prove that by mathematical methods
you can prove that a function of a is equal to a function of b (which is what these people are doing by multiplying by 0... multiplying by 0 creates a function because all know that a*0!=a)
but not a = b for the numbers you want

2006-08-17 01:47:41 · answer #7 · answered by mommy_mommy_crappypants 4 · 0 0

Let a=b
The a^2=ab
a^2+a^2 = a^2 + ab
2a^2 = a^2+ab
2a^2-2ab=a^2+ab-2ab
2a^2-2ab=a^2-ab
2(a^2-ab) = 1(a^2-ab)
Divide both sides by (a^2-ab)
Is that the answer that you were looing for? Well yeah u cant prove 2=1, cause that proof involved dividing by zero

2006-08-17 01:21:20 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

when a lady is expecting she is 1 but equals to 2

2006-08-17 01:29:53 · answer #9 · answered by Sachuu 2 · 0 0

I studied an Actuarial Science degree and had to do several math courses as well. They have taught me how easy it is to do this question. Here it is:

Let a=1, Let b=2
Assume that a=b
Therefore 1=2 (by assumption)

See, simple and easy.

Hence, I assume that you will give me 10pts...he he

2006-08-17 01:18:21 · answer #10 · answered by orion 3 · 1 0

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