Simple
1=2
Who cares about it
2006-08-17 22:41:16
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answer #1
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answered by Chacal 1
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If we define "2" as 1+1, then for 1 to equal 2, we'd need 1 to equal 0, since if 1=2, then 1=1+1, or 0=1. This would only be true in some alternative algebra, specifically the zero, or trivial ring, where the only element in the set is zero, which would act as the ring's "1" as well/
2006-08-17 08:11:18
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answer #2
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answered by Kyrix 6
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Two ways
::1::
1 + 1i = 2 + 0i
discard the imaginary numbers
FAULT -> Solution only works with a real number set at 0 degrees instead of 90.
::2::
1 = 2 (0)
1x0 = 0 (1)
2x0 = 0 (2)
By statement 1 and 2 statement 0 is proven
Notice both of the methods are debunked by complicated maths.
2006-08-17 06:46:00
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answer #3
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answered by Claire B 2
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In base 2 system of numbers '10' represents '2' in decimal system. As 0 has no value 1 will be equal to 2!!!!.
2006-08-17 06:40:14
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answer #4
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answered by natanan_56 2
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Hahaha. Well, there are 'proofs' out there, but whatever they are, they are fallacies because there is always an invalid step somewhere. So dude, chill out. 1 does not equal 2. Lol.
2006-08-17 06:41:15
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answer #5
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answered by Veefessional 2
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by adding 1 to1 is=2
2006-08-17 07:01:33
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answer #6
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answered by lowell g 1
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If a woman is married to a man, they become one and inturn 1=2 such reasons
2006-08-17 07:12:10
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answer #7
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answered by www.tonizek.com 3
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What do you mean? How can 1 be equal to 2? Are you trying to pull a fast one on me. Or am I just trippin over here?
2006-08-17 06:37:41
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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1 atom of hydrogen and 1 atom of oxygen equals 1 molecule of water. therefore, 2 separate atoms equal 1 molecule.
2006-08-17 14:17:07
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answer #9
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answered by JewJewBean 1
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I like that..."Hang out with really stupid people".
Good one.
1 does not equal 2.
Ashok K divides by zero when he divides by x-y... This is a no-no.
2006-08-17 07:57:23
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answer #10
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answered by arthurbc1 6
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