2006-08-16 13:08:25 · 9 answers · asked by lost&confused 5 in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
Sure! They have the right to free speech just like any American citizen. They just don't have the right to demand that they be understood in an English speaking country. It goes both ways.
2006-08-16 13:12:33 · answer #1 · answered by Teacher 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Of course it does. Anyone in the US's jurisdiction or custody has the right to free speech, and a lawyer, if that right is denied.
Don't believe me? Check the Constitution, "Freedom Fries".
2006-08-16 13:17:48 · answer #2 · answered by salaemwahibb 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Free speech is free speech. Good manners are good manners.
Take the two together and it should apply to everyone.
2006-08-16 13:22:13 · answer #3 · answered by mutaali t 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It should apply to everyone, in the words of Voltaire, "I may not believe in what you say, but i will defend with my life your right to say it"
2006-08-16 13:37:17 · answer #4 · answered by zac 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I should be a human right, not just an American or western one.
2006-08-16 13:12:06 · answer #5 · answered by Jon H 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
In the US it does. That pesky 1st Amendment again.
2006-08-16 13:12:55 · answer #6 · answered by coragryph 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
if they can speak within our laws
2006-08-16 13:12:25 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes if they are citizens.
2006-08-16 13:15:21 · answer #8 · answered by TigerLilly 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
U REALLY R LOST (STUPID) & CONFUSED!!!!!!!!!
GET IT??
* (STUPID) *
2006-08-16 13:14:10 · answer #9 · answered by bobby-bob 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋