According to the employment law on implied terms (also see Moores v Bude
Stratton Town Council (2000) IRLR 676) they are, and hence the council is
responsible for their behavoir, however there is no employment
contract. I want to know if the council are responsible for their councillors actions, the councillors are bound (constitution, behavoir rules etc) and receive
remuneration so presumably implied terms are created, hence they are effectively
"employees".
Does anyone know any case law etc
Many thanks
K Brooks
2006-08-16
07:13:44
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5 answers
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asked by
keithbrooks147
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Politics & Government
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