does anyone out there know and case law etc - please help
2006-08-16 06:47:19 · 5 answers · asked by keithbrooks147 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
No it is NOT slander - because it is in a 'non public' meeting and therefor 'privileged'.
Once outwith the meeting, then YES, it becomes slanderous and so actionable.
2006-08-16 09:51:07 · answer #1 · answered by Froggy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Councillors are bound by standards in public office. If a councillor breaches the standards they should be reported to the standards committee. Slander would be a breach - if it is slander.
2006-08-16 14:27:22 · answer #2 · answered by skemduffy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hello,
I can't give an exact answer for you unfortunately - but there is probably something in the Local Government Acts and the Local Government Code of Practice. - http://www.opsi.gov.uk/acts.htm
Also worth trying councillors forum at IDEA on this link:
http://www.idea-knowledge.gov.uk/idk/core/page.do?wax=lh_mn_0_0&pageId=1589608
Hope this helps, another source might be the Audit Commission
http://www.audit-commission.gov.uk/index.asp?
Best regards
2006-08-16 14:00:15 · answer #3 · answered by racingshoes 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well I shouldn't think Parliamentary Privilege applies so SUE, SUE, SUE. Oh! Wait a sec. What party does the so-called slanderer belong to? If Labour sue but if any other it's the truth
heavenlyhaggis
2006-08-16 13:57:55 · answer #4 · answered by d.perrot@btinternet.com 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
unless its written down it liable not slander you should look on the net for info
2006-08-16 15:35:46 · answer #5 · answered by johnstrangey 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋