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Who has first rights to it? And how did that come about?

2006-08-16 06:28:20 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Other - Society & Culture

Or why do they Jews want the same land as the Muslims? Whichever. I guess I am asking which came first? The Muslim or the Jew? Of course only in context of this question.

2006-08-16 06:40:02 · update #1

7 answers

Yes the current situation was created after WWII, but if you look back at history and do a little research this area has been in almost constant dispute for thousands of years (roman empire, christianity, crusades, and on and on and on). Also the Islam/Muslim religion didn't even come into existance until around 600+ad. But mostly the reasons are all religiously based.

2006-08-16 06:44:30 · answer #1 · answered by malkier8567 3 · 0 0

or perhaps your question should be, why did the jews want the same exact spot of land as the muslims?

they want it because they were there when britain created israel in 1948.

first rights is an impossible question.

it came about after WWII when the conquerors divided the spoils and the jews had fought for a state to avoid persecution.

2006-08-16 13:35:35 · answer #2 · answered by yuhannaboulos 2 · 0 0

The "Jews" have no right to ANY land. It was given to them.

2006-08-16 13:33:51 · answer #3 · answered by ·!¦[·ÐarrÁ·]¦!· 3 · 0 0

its the holy land of both

2006-08-16 13:33:32 · answer #4 · answered by Lina 4 · 0 0

Or vice versa!!

2006-08-16 13:33:17 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

if they didn't there'd be insufficient drama, and they'd have to find work, instead, to keep them busy. :-)

2006-08-16 13:35:25 · answer #6 · answered by drakke1 6 · 0 0

GREEDY MFs

2006-08-16 13:34:42 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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