2006-08-16 06:23:18 · 6 answers · asked by Iamstitch2U 6 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
Gosh, how many times does this have to be explained? Why should someone who never held slaves be forced to pay money to someone who was never a slave? If you figure out how many blacks are alive today, and multiply by the stupid amounts they are told they should get, it comes out to the entire income of this nation for many years. And, of course, it would never stop. If we are stupid enough to agree to it, every child of African ancestry born for the next thousand years will also expect to receive it. Enough already.
2006-08-16 06:32:17 · answer #1 · answered by retiredslashescaped1 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sure. Every person who worked as a slave before the end of the Civil War should be compensated. But, only the people who worked as slaves or children born into slavery should recieve these benifits.
2006-08-16 06:36:05 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yep, and the slaves descendants should own all of the accepts of the US. What was done was unspeakable. The after affects of this crime have been extremely detrimental to generations of people. But I believe the American Indians have the ultimate claim. All this land was theirs.
2006-08-16 06:46:55 · answer #3 · answered by slandguy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If there is anyone around who was actually a slave and if the slave owner is still around, then by all means. But I don't think we'll find anybody like this. So the answer is, uh, NOOOO!!!!
2006-08-16 06:34:23 · answer #4 · answered by Conservative 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, because the people who owned slaves, and those who were slaves are all DEAD.
2006-08-16 06:30:36 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
only to those who were actually slaves
2006-08-16 06:29:53 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋