My guess is that it is the bonds between atoms in chemical compounds which vibrate and then these vibrating bonds then cause the whole molecule to vibrate, perhaps in complex ways if there are many inter-atomic bonds. Hence Brownian motion. But does this mean that the atoms in an inert noble gas do not vibrate? Does this difference exist and, if so, what consequences are there at the macroscopic level? Or have I got it all wrong? If so, then please give me the full story.
2006-08-16
04:45:12
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7 answers
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asked by
optimaxim
3
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Physics