2006-08-15 16:12:14 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
because a bunch of rich farmers didn't want to pay their taxes. frankly, i don't blame them; they didn't have representation in parliment.
2006-08-15 16:17:56 · answer #1 · answered by myersei 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To declare the USA's independence from Britain, starting the Revolutionary War.
2006-08-15 16:17:40 · answer #2 · answered by RATM 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I was sent to King George of Britain to officially declare that the United States had decided to become independent of British rule.
2006-08-15 16:19:42 · answer #3 · answered by crazytrain_23_78 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was a declaration written by the founding fathers of the US to literally declare that the country was ready for independence from Briton. Or did you want to know more?
2006-08-15 16:18:17 · answer #4 · answered by Captain Socialism 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To declare our (the USA) independence from the British.
2006-08-15 16:17:03 · answer #5 · answered by rainynghts_71 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To keep the Britishes cotten picken hands off us.
2006-08-15 16:19:30 · answer #6 · answered by hexa 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
to declear we are free from great britain. another reason is to insure all right men are created equal. the reason why i say that because it doesnt say blacks or other color people. it also say whites could own property which is change after the civil war. property mean slaves. i rest my case
2006-08-15 16:23:08 · answer #7 · answered by icac83 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The more i re-read the document I think its time we re-enforce it on our present King George. All the grievances they list sound strangely familiar.
2006-08-15 16:25:52 · answer #8 · answered by tough as hell 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
To state our independence. Duhr.
2006-08-15 16:17:04 · answer #9 · answered by Potathao 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To hypocritically claim that we believe in equality even while we own slaves.
2006-08-15 16:20:55 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋