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2006-08-15 05:06:26 · 14 answers · asked by cmilja m 6 in Arts & Humanities Books & Authors

14 answers

Your question lacks clarity. I know what you mean - do you believe that the plays attributed to an author named Shakespeare were written by the man named William Shakespeare from Stratford-upon-Avon - but that's not technically what you're asking (what you're asking is more like whether one believes that a man named Shakespeare existed, in much the same way one might ask whether Santa Claus exists).

Anyway...

Personally, I do not believe that the man named William Shakespeare from Stratford-upon-Avon wrote the plays with whose authorship he is credited. (People who do believe this are referred to as "Stratfordians" in the authorship debate.) I consider myself an "Oxfordian" - I believe that Edward de Vere, the 17th Earl of Oxford (and, some say, the bastard child of Queen Elizabeth I), most likely wrote these plays.

I have to admit one thing, though - I'm predisposed to embrace conspiracy theories. I don't think Lee Harvey Oswald acted alone, either. ; )

Still, no one theory/ author explains everything in the authorship debate. Chances are that one man wrote a preponderance of the material - again, I support Oxford - and someone else (perhaps a publisher, editor or contemporary) made (relatively minor) corrections/additions.

2006-08-15 06:34:18 · answer #1 · answered by kcbranaghsgirl 6 · 0 1

I think people can get far to wrapped up in the problems involved when trying to answer this question. It amuses me that some are so certain one way or the other (how can they be, certain that is?) The reality is that there are plays and poems written for the enjoyment of the masses whether it be written by one person or a creation from a number of individuals, 'Shakespeare's' fine work is there for us to absorb! Rock on Shakespeare!!!

2006-08-15 20:26:47 · answer #2 · answered by Cocktail 2 · 0 0

I've heard more than a couple of theorists alleging that Shakespeare's works were written by one of his contemporaries and not the actual person names William Shakespeare. Like someone else just said, it's an intriguing idea, to say the least.

However, there's no way we will ever be able to prove with certainty who wrote those wonderful texts, why and if he or she chose to remain in anonymity. I'm just glad someone did and, if he or she wanted to be called Shakespeare so be it!

2006-08-15 05:28:01 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

As in, do I believe William Shakespeare of Stratford is the author of the plays and poetry generally attributed to him? Yes, I do.

We know very little about the life of that Will Shakespeare, but what we do know shows that he had the education and opportunity to learn about everything he wrote about.

Attempts to prove someone else is the author rely on pure speculation. It always seems to me to be incredibly snobbish to assume that the son of a middle-class businessman would be too much of a country bumpkin to be able to write with the knowledge of humanity that "Shakespeare" did - therefore the true author of his works must be some nobleman in disguise. Baloney. Ever wonder why Verona and all the other exotic settings of his plays resemble England so much?

2006-08-15 12:12:13 · answer #4 · answered by poohba 5 · 0 1

Do you mean did Shakespeare write the plays accredited to him? It has been researched out the wazoo, and no one has been able to prove with any certainty that a contemporary of his wrote the plays.
Do you mean are the words all accurate and completely his? Probably not. The First Folio, the first collection of his plays that were published, was printed quite some time after his death, from memory by his fellow actors.

2006-08-15 05:18:43 · answer #5 · answered by David S 3 · 0 0

it truly is a pastime for human beings with to a lot time on their fingers. Shakespeare did stay and did write the performs and poetry he's credited with. the human beings who argue compared position are merely engaged in an psychological workout attempting to instruct how wise they're. no longer that they don't take themselves heavily, yet then it really is area of the project....

2016-11-25 19:15:19 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Its very obvious that Shakespeare DID NOT write the plays attributed to him. If you compare Christopher Marlows' plays they are almost identical in literary content. In my view it is indisputable ,but nothing can be proved conclusively.
Wihout going into the finer points there are a lot of 'brains' out there who are convinced Marlow is the 'culprit'.
It does not matter really, because who ever it was that produced them was the greatest playwrite who ever put quill to parchment..

2006-08-15 12:32:47 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Why does it matter? It is too hard now to prove it is someone else's work, so live with it, the works are all Shakespeare's.

2006-08-15 05:11:20 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Well if he didn't he certainly made a lot of money in his lifetime doing something else.

But seriously, it is well known that even whilst he was undertaking his works he has admirers and critics.

I would admit he used many sources for his works and collaborated with others, but if the well known poets and playwrights of the day were happy to say they were his i am willing to go along with them.

2006-08-15 05:56:07 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Well, interestingly there's a heck of a lot more evidence that he didn't write those plays than that he did.

It probably doesn't matter all that much - but it's intriguing nevertheless.

2006-08-15 05:13:42 · answer #10 · answered by Hello Dave 6 · 0 0

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